What you call apocryphal we call books "worthy to be read" and includes Revelation in that second tier.
No, In the eastern Church there are two tiers of books and a third category called Apocryphal is rejected. Tobit and Revelation are not Apocryphal they are Anagignoskomena, 'worthy to be read'. This means they are scripture but not read publicly out loud in Liturgy.I didn't say they weren't "worthy to be read", however, they are not on the same level or authority as inspired Scripture. Their long, convoluted, confusing and often controversial history is proof of that. Revelation, however, is absolutely canonical.
No, In the eastern Church there are two tiers of books and a third category called Apocryphal is rejected. Tobit and Revelation are not Apocryphal they are Anagignoskomena, 'worthy to be read'. This means they are scripture but not read publicly out loud in Liturgy.
Protestants have invented their bible with the gutenberg press. Meaning corrections cannot be made to mass produced western language translation. They try hence hundreds of mass produced versions in the same language.
Which bible? Catholic and Orthodox bibles contain passages that refer to prayer for those who have died and invoking those who have died and are in heaven.The Bible nowhere instructs believers in Christ to pray to anyone other than God.
The Gutenberg press predates Protestantism and the only bibles it produced were Catholic bibles.Protestants have invented their western bibles with the gutenberg press.
My take is based on the correct translation of the Hebrew word [nehphesh], the implication being that the doctrine of unconditional human immortality is incorrect, and that when a person is said to be dead they really are dead, or asleep, as Paul euphemisticly puts it.I believe that is the one.
It sounds like your take on this is we all are bound for Soul Sleep until He comes again, but the few who do not sleep could be spoken to somehow. Is that a good guess?
The Gutenberg press predates Protestantism and the only bibles it produced were Catholic bibles.
My take is based on the correct translation of the Hebrew word [nehphesh], the implication being that the doctrine of unconditional human immortality is incorrect, and that when a person is said to be dead they really are dead, or asleep, as Paul euphemisticly puts it.
Thanks for this. What you have written gives answer to some of the rebuttal that I may have been about to face. We also have references to Sheol and the understanding of what it is to be in the Bosom of Abraham. Also the prayer of Jonah while in the whale for 3 days has a bearing here.This is only partially the semitic understanding. In fact this is the standard Mesopotamian understanding as its also held amongst the Persians and Assyrians.
The nephesh or soul or life force of the body is interwined as the oil in its vessel. Upon death the soul (characterized in the OT as the life blood Genesis 9:4-5 ) and body are buried with the soul being in a semi-conscious state. While it is expected this composite nature should rest in peace the nephesh can still be summoned. Hence God told Cain that his brothers blood is crying out to him from the earth (Genesis 4:10) and the witch of Endor was able to summon the prophet Samuel. On the other hand ALL men ALSO have a ruah (spirit) this ruah- spirit automatically ascends to God whom gave it. This is found in numerous old testament passages including the new testament. ( Ecclesiastes 12:7 , 2Samuel 12:23 , Philipians 1:22-24, Luke 23:46)
Paul was aware and held to this belief: "And the God of peace himself sanctify you wholly; and may your spirit and soul and body be preserved entire, without blame at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ." (1 Thess 5:23)
"For the word of God is alive and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart." (NIV) (Hebrews 4:12)
See, I don't believe the Bible is a man-made invention at all. I believe it is the inspired word of God.
Not sure where either complete perfection or partial perfection is mentioned. Secondly how about the various translations whose language simply cannot convey the original intent?1. The Bible itself claims to be perfect. The Bible argues for complete perfection, leaving no room for “partial perfection” theories.
This is Islamic teaching, Bibliolatry is not a christian teaching this is made clear in scripture (2 Timothy 2:2 Hebrews 2:1-4 Hebrews 5:11-14 6:1-3) Christianity including the bible condemns this practise. How is it that Jehovahs Witness, 7th Day Adventists, Westboro Baptists, Lutherans, Prebyterians, Oneness Pentecostals, Charismatic Pentecostals, Black Evangelicals, White Evangelicals, cant agree on anything with each other claiming the bible tells them so?6. The Bible is our only rule for faith and practice. “Lord, to whom shall we go? You have the words of eternal life.”
Well said. Some say Sola Scriptura others say Sola Papam, as for me? I say Sola Espirito Sanctus.This is Islamic teaching, Bibliolatry is not a christian teaching this is made clear in scripture (2 Timothy 2:2 Hebrews 2:1-4 Hebrews 5:11-14 6:1-3) Christianity including the bible condemns this practise. How is it that Jehovahs Witness, 7th Day Adventists, Westboro Baptists, Lutherans, Prebyterians, Oneness Pentecostals, Charismatic Pentecostals, Black Evangelicals, White Evangelicals, cant agree on anything with each other claiming the bible tells them so?
The saints are dead and they are in eternity awaiting the return of Christ like every other believer who has died in the Lord. In actual fact, trying to communicate with the dead is an occult practice, so praying to the dead is at the same level and in my view, just as an occult practice as some medium trying to contact the dead.The Bible nowhere instructs believers in Christ to pray to anyone other than God.
The Bible nowhere encourages or even MENTIONS believers asking individuals in Heaven for their prayers.
Some believe that those who are glorified in Heaven have MORE "direct access" to God than we do.
Therefore, if a saint delivers a prayer to God on our behalf, it is MORE effective than us praying to God directly.
This concept is blatantly un-Biblical.
Hebrews 4:16 tells us that we, believers here on earth, can "approach the throne of grace with confidence."
My dear sisters and brothers, what is your opinion/view on this?
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Protestant bibles, by definition, cannot predate the Protestant revolt and reformation following Martin Luther's excommunication from the Catholic church in 1521 AD. Such bibles are, as you indicate, comparatively "modern" in history and certainly novel for Christians of that era.So you agree that protestant bibles did not exist before the Reformation? They are fairly modern western constructs, its current table of contents of today being a product of mass printing hence the populace only knew the newly mass produced table of contents ?
Jesus addressed this issue when he said regarding Abraham, Isaac and David that they are not dead but alive because God is not the God of the dead but of the living.The saints are dead
As Jesus said to the Pharisees,The saints are dead and they are in eternity awaiting the return of Christ like every other believer who has died in the Lord.
Asking the Saints to pray for us is not the same as contacting the dead to gain secret knowledge of the past or future. We do not seek or expect any verbal reply from the Saints when we speak to them, whereas that is precisely what the occult seeks after.In actual fact, trying to communicate with the dead is an occult practice, so praying to the dead is at the same level and in my view, just as an occult practice as some medium trying to contact the dead.
As Jesus said to the Pharisees,
He is not God of the dead, but of the living; you are quite wrong.
He led by example on Mt Tabor.Did Jesus also tell the Pharisees to pray to the saints. Even once?
The scriptures told them how the Prophet Jeremiah was invoked by faithful Jews. But the Pharisees were not faithful Jews were they. They plotted to crucify the Son of God.Did Jesus also tell the Pharisees to pray to the saints. Even once?