He showed many scriptures that explicitly refute that opinion.
"See to it,
brothers and sisters, that none of you has a sinful,
unbelieving heart that turns away from the living God. But encourage one another daily, as long as it is called “Today,”
so that none of you may be hardened by sin’s deceitfulness.
We have come to share in Christ, if indeed we hold our original conviction firmly to the very end." H
ebrews 3:12-14
The author is warning brothers and sisters in Christ to hold fast their conviction (faith) until the end, lest they *turn away* from God in unbelief. He isn't saying that if they don't believe, they never believed to begin with.
The Lord delivered His people (the Israelites) out of Egypt, but later destroyed those who
did not believe (Jude 1:5). God had revealed Himself to these Israelites and chosen them as His people, but that does not mean they were ALL saved.
The author of Hebrews is addressing brethren here in verse 12, but does this mean that EVERYONE in this very large group of Hebrews must be genuine believers? It's not hard to find unbelievers/nominal Christians mixed in with a very large group of professing believers. As we read in verse 14, For we
have become [past tense Gk. verb, gegonamen, meaning we have become already] partakers of Christ, if we hold fast the beginning of our confidence steadfast to the end." Notice that this is essentially a repeat of verse 6, where we read: but Christ was faithful as a Son over His house -
whose house we are, if we hold fast our confidence and the boast of our hope firm until the end.
The only ones in the end who will be identified as those who have become partakers of Christ, will have been those who hold fast the beginning of their confidence steadfast to the end." These faltering Hebrews who depart from God begin with loud confidence and profession of loyalty. But later? The wording of the above verse in Hebrews is not - "and you will become partakers of Christ (future indicative) if you (future indicative) hold fast." It is rather - "you
have been, and now are, partakers of Christ, if in the future you hold fast to Christ." Holding fast to Christ is a manifestation of genuine faith and having become partakers of Christ and departing from God is a manifestation of unbelief and failure to have become partakers of Christ. Just as we see in 1 John 2:19,
if they had been of us, then they would have continued with us.
Hebrews 4:11 "There remains, then, a Sabbath-rest for the people of God...Let us, therefore, make every effort to enter that rest, so that no one will perish by following their example of disobedience."
Who should make the effort to enter that rest? The people of God. Who risk perishing by following the example of disobedience (unbelief)? People of God.
Their disobedience was a manifestation of their unbelief. In Hebrews 4:2-3, we read: For indeed the gospel was preached to
us as well as to
them; but the word which
they heard
did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in those who heard it. For we who have
BELIEVED do enter that rest, as He has said: "So I swore in My wrath, 'They shall not enter My rest," although the works were finished from the foundation of the world.
*Notice that verses 2-3 makes a distinction between
"us" who have BELIEVED and do enter that rest and
"them" who heard the word but did not mix faith with what they heard and will not enter that rest because of UNBELIEF. Those who failed to enter that rest,
fell short of the grace of God (NIV);
came short of the grace of God (NASB);
failed to obtain the grace of God (ESV), as we read in Hebrews 12:15.
Hebrews 6:4-9 "It is impossible for those who have once been enlightened, who have tasted the heavenly gift,
who have been made partakers in the Holy Spirit, who have tasted the goodness of the word of God and the powers of the coming age and who have fallen away, to be brought back to repentance.
See post #55.
Hebrews 10:26-30 - This is speaking of returning to a state of willful sin (slavery to sin, basically) -after- one has received the exact knowledge of the truth. Only Christians can have epignosis, relational/experiential knowledge, of Christ.
What does the Hebrews 10:26 mean concerning 'willful sin?'
Returning, or choosing to draw back to perdition instead of believing to the saving of the soul? (vs. 39). See post #56. Also, in verse 29, the reference to "the blood of the covenant that sanctified him" seems to be referring to a Christian, but the word translated "sanctified" (which is a term often applied to Christians) and means "set apart," does not necessarily refer to salvation.
In 1 Corinthians 7:14, Paul uses it to specifically refer to non-Christians who are "sanctified" or "set apart" by their believing spouse.
(And by this Paul does not mean that they are saved). A non-Christian can be "set apart" from other non-Christians and sinful things without experiencing salvation as Paul explained. So the word "sanctified" means to be "set apart." If the word "sanctified" simply meant saved, then you would have to say that the Sabbath was saved (Genesis 2:3), the tabernacle was saved (Exodus 29:43), the Lord was saved (Leviticus 10:3), the Father saved the Son (John 10:36) and many other things that just do not line up with scripture.
In verse 39, the author sets up the contrast that makes it clear to me that he was referring to unbelievers, not saved people:
But we are not of those who draw back to perdition, but of those who believe to the saving of the soul. Those who draw back to perdition do not believe to the saving of the soul and those who believe to the saving of the soul do not draw back to perdition.
So after considering the context, it seems most likely that "he was sanctified" should be understood in the sense of someone who had been "set apart" or identified as a professing Christian in the Christian community of Hebrew believers, yet renounced their identification with believers, by rejecting the "knowledge of the truth" they had received, and by repudiating the work and the person of Christ himself, giving evidence that his identification with the Christian community was merely superficial and they were not a genuine believer.
1 Timothy 1:18-20 "Timothy, my son, I am giving you this command in keeping with the prophecies once made about you, so that by recalling them you may fight the battle well,
holding on to faith and a good conscience, which some have rejected and so have suffered shipwreck with regard to the faith. Among them are Hymenaeus and Alexander, whom I have handed over to Satan to be taught not to blaspheme."
What's clear from this passage is that though a stern measure of church discipline was needed. Did Paul remain hopeful concerning these two men? Even though at the present time of writing they had rejected sound doctrine and a good conscience, Paul’s whole purpose for the discipline was that these men would be taught not to blaspheme. Where else do we read about being "handed over to Satan?" In 1 Corinthians 5:1-5, we read about a man who had sexual relations with his father's wife and he was
"handed over to Satan" for the destruction of the flesh, that his
spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus. It did not say he lost his salvation.
Among the twelve apostles we have both Peter and Judas who by outward observance seemed to deny the faith. Peter by public denial (temporary weak movement) Judas by public betrayal (unbelieving, unclean devil who betrayed Jesus (John 6:64-71; 13:10-11).
It would appear that both Peter and Judas had a shipwreck. Yet the Biblical text shows that according to Jesus, Judas was a devil and Peter was a true disciple of Christ. So here in 1 Timothy 1:18-20, we have two specific examples of two men who 'suffered shipwreck' but what happened after that?
1 Timothy 4:1-7: "The Spirit explicitly says that in later times s
ome will fall away from the faith and follow deceiving spirits and things taught by demons...."
The Greek is in no-wise ambiguous that they are departing the faith itself, not merely the fellowship of believers or a profession of faith, and the Spirit is explicitly/expressly stating that such a thing can and will occur.
What does it mean in 1 Tim 4:1 that 'some will depart from faith, giving heed to deceiving spirits?'
1 Timothy 4:1 - Now the Spirit expressly says that in latter times some will depart from the faith, giving heed to deceiving spirits and doctrines of demons, 2 speaking lies in hypocrisy, having their own conscience seared with a hot iron, 3
forbidding to marry, and
commanding to abstain from foods which God created to be received with thanksgiving by those who believe and know the truth.
Of course you believe "depart from the faith" means that born again believers depart from saving faith in Christ and lose their salvation. The words "the faith" (Gr. tês pisteôs) in this context means the apostolic faith, the New Testament apostolic body of doctrines. Some who are in a state of professing adherence to the apostolic faith, nevertheless will in both doctrine and practice depart from it, giving heed to deceiving spirits and doctrines of demons.
Some "nominal" Christians will abandon the Christian faith, the New Testament apostolic body of doctrines for cults or false religions. That does not prove they were previously born again. In 1 John 2:19, we read - They
went out from us, but they
were not of us; for
if they had been of us, they
would have continued with us; but they
went out that they might be
made manifest, that
none of them were of us.
I believe the beginning of such a major departing from the apostolic faith was seen in the early 4th century with the Roman Catholic church. The Roman Catholic church
forbids it's clergy to marry for example, among other false doctrines.
2 Peter 2:20-22 - These men had escaped the corruption of the world through the true knowledge of Christ. Epignosis (true knowledge) is relational and experiential - only Christians can have this with Christ (II Pet 1:3-11)
See post #58. Having this knowledge does not save a person if there is
no heart submission to this knowledge. "Draw back to perdition and did not believe to the saving of the soul" (Hebrews 10:39) does not equal saved. Received the knowledge of the truth (Hebrews 10:26), yet still at a crossroad. Judas Iscariot is a good example of someone who received this full knowledge, yet was not saved. Jesus said he is a devil!
I could go on, but out of time for now. Suffice to say that many of the passages he gave are indeed very explicit that Christians can later cease to believe, and that some with true knowledge (epignosis, which only Christians can have) later fall away back to the world.
Only Christians have a
heart submission to this true knowledge and
believe to the saving of the soul and do not draw back to perdition. Saving belief in Christ continues and is not some shallow, temporary belief that has no root, produces no fruit and withers away. Show me a verse in the Bible that specifically states a really "saved" person really "lost their salvation." Thanks and God bless.
