Gerhard Ebersoehn
Junior Member
There was a WORK day BETWEEN the two Sabbaths to where the spices were bought AFTER the Sabbath of the Feast (the 15th-Mark 16:1), and then prepared BEFORE the weekly Sabbath (the 17th day of the 1st month-Luke 23:56).
Every single statement of course being full of incorrect and fictitious inconsistencies. As shown repeatedly before. But let me just speak about one of them now.
You make it look so one dimensional, <<the spices were bought AFTER the Sabbath of the Feast>>, in other words, on the day, <<AFTER the Sabbath of the Feast>>, in daylight of the day <<after the Sabbath of the Feast>>. According to you, on Friday day, <<after the Sabbath of the Feast>> on Thursday day.
That is not what is seen in Mark 16:1 as well as what is implied and inferred in Mark 16:1. Two things are seen in Mark 16:1 which you pretend are non-existent in Mark 16:1 but very well know, do exist in Mark 16:1.
The first is, Mark 16:1 says "after the Sabbath" which Mark, had in mind, which Sabbath was the Sabbath in between the day Joseph closed the grave on, which was "the Preparation which is the Fore-Sabbath" Friday without question, and "the day after the Sabbath" on which the three women bought spices. Mark means and speaks of "the day after the Sabbath", "the First Day of the week when they would go and anoint Him", and Friday after the Burial -- which was the weekly Sabbath, simply.
That is the first thing you ignore flat as if it is beneath your worthiness to keep in mind.
The second things is this,
You make it look so one dimensional, <<the spices were bought AFTER the Sabbath of the Feast>>, in other words, on the day, <<AFTER the Sabbath of the Feast>>, in daylight of the day <<after the Sabbath of the Feast>>. According to you, on Friday day, <<after the Sabbath of the Feast>> on Thursday day.
But that is not what is seen in Mark 16:1 nor what is implied or written in Mark 16:1. Because it is not written in Mark 16:1 that it was <<the day after the Sabbath>>, but, it is written that "the Sabbath had gone through" -- had just gone through, which was, not <<a work DAY the spices were bought>>, but was, just after "the Sabbath had gone through" just after sunset in the dusk "on the First Day of the week" in the beginning of "the First Day of the week" its evening. It therefore was early of dark still, "on the First Day of the week", after the Sabbath --"the Sabbath" which before the First Day of the week, "had gone through"; the Sabbath which followed on "the Fore-Sabbath the Preparation, the Friday, before it. In Mark 16:1 "the Sabbath had (just) gone through" and it was after the Sabbath in the early of dark still, or dusk, dusk after sunset on 'Saturday' evening.
This shows the WC theory makes no sense and only creates nonsensicality.
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