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Zechariah 14:12 And this shall be the plague wherewith the LORD will smite all the people that have fought against Jerusalem; Their flesh shall consume away while they stand upon their feet, and their eyes shall consume away in their holes, and their tongue shall consume away in their mouth.
If this is to be taken literally, no one can then still deny this is yet in our future. No one who is being intellectually honest could, that is.
The text says----the LORD will smite. That should settle it right there this has to be meaning a literal event, thus one can't spiritualize this away and try and make the text mean something else altogether instead.
The following is a similar example of something the LORD had said He would do, then did exactly what He said He would do.
2 Chronicles 21:14 Behold, with a great plague will the LORD smite thy people, and thy children, and thy wives, and all thy goods:
15 And thou shalt have great sickness by disease of thy bowels, until thy bowels fall out by reason of the sickness day by day.
The fulfillment of these words----
2 Chronicles 21:18 And after all this the LORD smote him in his bowels with an incurable disease.
19 And it came to pass, that in process of time, after the end of two years, his bowels fell out by reason of his sickness: so he died of sore diseases. And his people made no burning for him, like the burning of his fathers.
Why then do some people falsely claim Zech 14 is not still future, but already in our past? Why would one take the plague mentioned in 2 Chronicles 21 in the literal sense, thus concluding this literally happened in history, while at the same time, in total disbelief about the plague in Zechariah 14:12, thus feeling the need to change the text to mean something that agrees with their position, rather than agreeing with the text itself?
And since Zechariah 14:12 has to be meaning literally, thus this will get fulfilled the same way the plague in 2 Chronicles 21 got fulfilled, no way has this event already been fulfilled in the past 2000 years.
Zechariah 14:16 And it shall come to pass, that every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem shall even go up from year to year to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, and to keep the feast of tabernacles.
17 And it shall be, that whoso will not come up of all the families of the earth unto Jerusalem to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, even upon them shall be no rain.
18 And if the family of Egypt go not up, and come not, that have no rain; there shall be the plague, wherewith the LORD will smite the heathen that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.
19 This shall be the punishment of Egypt, and the punishment of all nations that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.
Obviously this has to be meaning a time after the LORD has smitten all the people that have fought against Jerusalem. And since it has to be, how does this passage make sense unless there is a time period following the 2nd coming? And how can that time period not be meaning this same thousand years mentioned in Rev 20?
If this is to be taken literally, no one can then still deny this is yet in our future. No one who is being intellectually honest could, that is.
The text says----the LORD will smite. That should settle it right there this has to be meaning a literal event, thus one can't spiritualize this away and try and make the text mean something else altogether instead.
The following is a similar example of something the LORD had said He would do, then did exactly what He said He would do.
2 Chronicles 21:14 Behold, with a great plague will the LORD smite thy people, and thy children, and thy wives, and all thy goods:
15 And thou shalt have great sickness by disease of thy bowels, until thy bowels fall out by reason of the sickness day by day.
The fulfillment of these words----
2 Chronicles 21:18 And after all this the LORD smote him in his bowels with an incurable disease.
19 And it came to pass, that in process of time, after the end of two years, his bowels fell out by reason of his sickness: so he died of sore diseases. And his people made no burning for him, like the burning of his fathers.
Why then do some people falsely claim Zech 14 is not still future, but already in our past? Why would one take the plague mentioned in 2 Chronicles 21 in the literal sense, thus concluding this literally happened in history, while at the same time, in total disbelief about the plague in Zechariah 14:12, thus feeling the need to change the text to mean something that agrees with their position, rather than agreeing with the text itself?
And since Zechariah 14:12 has to be meaning literally, thus this will get fulfilled the same way the plague in 2 Chronicles 21 got fulfilled, no way has this event already been fulfilled in the past 2000 years.
Zechariah 14:16 And it shall come to pass, that every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem shall even go up from year to year to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, and to keep the feast of tabernacles.
17 And it shall be, that whoso will not come up of all the families of the earth unto Jerusalem to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, even upon them shall be no rain.
18 And if the family of Egypt go not up, and come not, that have no rain; there shall be the plague, wherewith the LORD will smite the heathen that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.
19 This shall be the punishment of Egypt, and the punishment of all nations that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.
Obviously this has to be meaning a time after the LORD has smitten all the people that have fought against Jerusalem. And since it has to be, how does this passage make sense unless there is a time period following the 2nd coming? And how can that time period not be meaning this same thousand years mentioned in Rev 20?