Jane_the_Bane
Gaia's godchild
- Feb 11, 2004
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While Christianity is most definitely a syncretist religion, we need to be careful about doing our research properly when we go looking for the exact influences here. The internet is fraught with false claims in this regard, and it makes it all too easy for Christians to just point to such falsehoods to discredit *any* such notion.
The greatest similarities between the Osiris myth and the Jesus myth (note: "myth" as "tale fraught with existential meaning", NOT necessarily "fictitious fairy tale") lies in Osiris's resurrection after being brutally murdered and dismembered, and the subsequent importance he has in relation to the eternal afterlife.
This leads me to an interesting question, though: how exactly *did* the ancients define virginity? Is it really all about the intact hymen (which, after all, often ruptures without the involvement of any sexual activity)? Or is it just about the sexual intercourse as such? If so, why does Mary being - ahem - "visited" by the Holy Ghost not count as a defloration? It always seemed to me that her virginal status was just supposed to signify that Jesus could not possibly have been the child of a human father - at least at first. Later sexual hangups absorbed from Gnostic and Stoic sources saw to it that sexuality became almost literally demonized, and the Church ended up insisting that Mary remained virginal throughout her life, rationalizing away Jesus's brothers and sisters and even going so far as to make the state of her hymen an article of faith. (I suppose Jesus was born via osmosis in the minds of certain church leaders.)
WRONG. While Egyptian mythology evolved over millennia, and thus includes many different versions of specific myths, Osiris is not virgin-born. The most common version depicts him as the child of the Earth-god Heb and the Sky-goddess Nut.Osiris, born of a virgin.
The greatest similarities between the Osiris myth and the Jesus myth (note: "myth" as "tale fraught with existential meaning", NOT necessarily "fictitious fairy tale") lies in Osiris's resurrection after being brutally murdered and dismembered, and the subsequent importance he has in relation to the eternal afterlife.
In the most common version of the myth, Mithras emerges fully formed from a rock. We could make a case for the rock being virginal, but still...Mithras, born of a virgin
Semele was a mortal woman impregnated by Zeus. Since that may or may not involve actual sexual intercourse (after all, Zeus made love in many different guises, not all of which necessitated the use of actual reproductive organs: one princess was impregnated by Zeus-as-rain, trickling through the ceiling), we could build a (somewhat weak) case for the state of her hymen here. However, no ancient source names her a virgin.Dionysus, born of a virgin
This leads me to an interesting question, though: how exactly *did* the ancients define virginity? Is it really all about the intact hymen (which, after all, often ruptures without the involvement of any sexual activity)? Or is it just about the sexual intercourse as such? If so, why does Mary being - ahem - "visited" by the Holy Ghost not count as a defloration? It always seemed to me that her virginal status was just supposed to signify that Jesus could not possibly have been the child of a human father - at least at first. Later sexual hangups absorbed from Gnostic and Stoic sources saw to it that sexuality became almost literally demonized, and the Church ended up insisting that Mary remained virginal throughout her life, rationalizing away Jesus's brothers and sisters and even going so far as to make the state of her hymen an article of faith. (I suppose Jesus was born via osmosis in the minds of certain church leaders.)
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