Inclusivism

sdowney717

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Hence easy and real answer. I prefer the easy answer, but Christ complicates things a little bit! :)

Destiny Lake of Fire, the second death. For it is appointed for men to die once and then comes judgement.

Lake of fire I Imagine is a lake of fire where they go who are not believers and what happens is they all share the same fate in that same lake. I wonder if they can swim around, all speculation what it is like, but not a pleasant ending to your life.

We also have this mentioned in Rev 13

9 Then a third angel followed them, saying with a loud voice, “If anyone worships the beast and his image, and receives his mark on his forehead or on his hand, 10 he himself shall also drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is poured out full strength into the cup of His indignation. He shall be tormented with fire and brimstone in the presence of the holy angels and in the presence of the Lamb. 11 And the smoke of their torment ascends forever and ever; and they have no rest day or night, who worship the beast and his image, and whoever receives the mark of his name.”

12 Here is the patience of the saints; here are those[g] who keep the commandments of God and the faith of Jesus.

So then perhaps that place, lake of fire, is very visible to those in heaven, even into the age of the New Heavens and New earth, the age to come.
Which is also in agreement with Isaiah last chapter v24 about seeing it real time. Those who are God's, who worship the Lord, will come before Him and they shall see the sinners, the transgressors in the fire.

22 “For as the new heavens and the new earth
Which I will make shall remain before Me,” says the Lord,
“So shall your descendants and your name remain.
23 And it shall come to pass
That from one New Moon to another,
And from one Sabbath to another,
All flesh shall come to worship before Me,” says the Lord.

24 “And they shall go forth and look
Upon the corpses of the men
Who have transgressed against Me.
For their worm does not die,
And their fire is not quenched.
They shall be an abhorrence to all flesh.”
 
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hedrick

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Yes, because you are stretching the meaning of 1 Cor 7 to mean that if children are sanctified by a believing spouse, then so are unbelieving spouses, which is incorrect.

My question wasn't about unbelieving spouses, but about children. Are you saying that any child who dies before they can have a real faith in Christ is damned?

I understand that you don't think *all* children are saved. My question is whether any are. If the only way to be saved is through explicit faith in Christ, then it would seem not.
 
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abacabb3

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My question wasn't about unbelieving spouses, but about children.
I presume 1 Cor 7 was your proof text, and if it were, you would have had to adopt that conclusion.

Are you saying that any child who dies before they can have a real faith in Christ is damned?

The only way to be saved is by faith in Christ, apart from faith in Him no one, anywhere, at any time, in any culture, at any time in history, at any age, is saved.
 
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Ignatius21

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I presume 1 Cor 7 was your proof text, and if it were, you would have had to adopt that conclusion.



The only way to be saved is by faith in Christ, apart from faith in Him no one, anywhere, at any time, in any culture, at any time in history, at any age, is saved.

Which makes faith a matter of intellectual assent, and not of trust, dependence and love. Infants cannot mentally process data. They can, however, trust and depend upon their parents in love.

I cannot reconcile that notion of faith with Scripture.
 
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sdowney717

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Which makes faith a matter of intellectual assent, and not of trust, dependence and love. Infants cannot mentally process data. They can, however, trust and depend upon their parents in love.

I cannot reconcile that notion of faith with Scripture.

Leave this in God's care. I dont see or read about people preaching to infants. all the people preached to in scripture, were able to respond either in belief or unbelief, and some had doubt, questions. There was an interaction between people of faith and people who had none.

A principle from scripture, recall ancient Israel wandering in the wilderness. God was displeased with all the men-women of that generation. And God told them they would die, and not inherit the promises of God, but their children would. So dont worry about what God will do, because God knows what He is doing and all His decisions are just true righteous holy and no one can say to Him what are your doing or why did you do that..
 
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hedrick

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I presume 1 Cor 7 was your proof text, and if it were, you would have had to adopt that conclusion.

Folks who teach salvation of infants typically quote several different texts, but that's certainly one of them

The only way to be saved is by faith in Christ, apart from faith in Him no one, anywhere, at any time, in any culture, at any time in history, at any age, is saved.

You haven't actually answered, but I understand you as saying that infants can't be saved. Or perhaps you're simply saying you don't know, but if it happens it happens through faith.

Lutherans, of course, believe specifically in infant faith. I'm not aware of any other group teaching this explicitly. However it's hard to see how an infant's faith could be faith specifically in Christ. The best option I can think of is to say that faith is our bond to Christ, but that in some cases it isn't intellectual. But that would result in the possibility of some adult non-Christians being saved. I believe this is true of any concept of infant faith.
 
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sdowney717

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Psalm 22, for infants, especially Infants who are of God, note what it says,

'From My mother’s womb, You have been My God.'
'For trouble is near, and there is none to help.'

Such is the state of infants, and those yet unborn, who truly have no help but God.

[This psalm speaks also of Christ, if you read the entire psalm..]

9 But You are He who took Me out of the womb;
You made Me trust while on My mother’s breasts.
10 I was cast upon You from birth.
From My mother’s womb
You have been My God.
11 Be not far from Me,
For trouble is near;
For there is none to help.
 
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abacabb3

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Which makes faith a matter of intellectual assent, and not of trust, dependence and love. Infants cannot mentally process data. They can, however, trust and depend upon their parents in love.

I cannot reconcile that notion of faith with Scripture.

I'd disagree. It is not about intellect and we already know that God works through life circumstances. So, if someone is born in Timbuktu 1000 years ago and the Gospel ever reached there, it belongs to the secret judgments of God that He hardens whom he He chooses to harden and has mercy on whom He has mercy.
 
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sdowney717

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I'd disagree. It is not about intellect and we already know that God works through life circumstances. So, if someone is born in Timbuktu 1000 years ago and the Gospel ever reached there, it belongs to the secret judgments of God that He hardens whom he He chooses to harden and has mercy on whom He has mercy.

Yes, Our salvation or not is up to Him.
v16 is especially good. God shows mercy and we are saved. And for those who are saved, they have obtained mercy from God to be saved.

The only answers we have are in the scriptures for these things, and we better heed and pay close attention to them. Otherwise we get led about by strange and various teachings of men who are of corrupt mind.

Romans 9
14 What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? Certainly not! 15 For He says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whomever I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whomever I will have compassion.” 16 So then it is not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God who shows mercy.

1 Peter 1
3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who according to His abundant mercy has begotten us again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead
1 Peter 2
9 But you are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, His own special people, that you may proclaim the praises of Him who called you out of darkness into His marvelous light; 10 who once were not a people but are now the people of God, who had not obtained mercy but now have obtained mercy.
 
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abacabb3

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Folks who teach salvation of infants typically quote several different texts, but that's certainly one of them

And it is a bad one to quote because it leads to conclusions we know to be wrong.

You haven't actually answered, but I understand you as saying that infants can't be saved. Or perhaps you're simply saying you don't know, but if it happens it happens through faith.

I think Tim Conway has a good explanation of this issue. "All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness." So, if the Bible doesn't talk about it, God does not deem it important for us to know.

This is how I view infant salvation. It is theoretically possible, it is certainly not out of God's power, because nothing is. However, being that we have no indication infants can accept Christ after their deaths, it is just a bad presumption, certainly not one people should be confidently gloating about (like John MacArthur who in response to the question said without hesitating "instant heaven.")

Further, it presents some major theological problems, which you yourself are aware of. Being that no one merits their own salvation, all are saved plainly by God's grace. So, if God randomly saves some babies, then why can't inclusivism be true? Or, if God saves all babies, why can't unviersalism be true?

Further, holding to the idea forces us into an inconsistent hermeneutic. The Scripture says believing comes from hearing. How does this become untrue for babies? To me it is special pleading.

The best option I can think of is to say that faith is our bond to Christ, but that in some cases it isn't intellectual. But that would result in the possibility of some adult non-Christians being saved. I believe this is true of any concept of infant faith.

Ultimately that is not the faith Scripture speaks of. Scripture speaks of calling on Jesus' name. Never hearing of Jesus or being incapable of even comprehending Him means it is much more likely and consistent to view that people such as these are faithless.
 
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abacabb3

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Yes, Our salvation or not is up to Him.
v16 is especially good. God shows mercy and we are saved. And for those who are saved, they have obtained mercy from God to be saved.

The only answers we have are in the scriptures for these things, and we better heed and pay close attention to them. Otherwise we get led about by strange and various teachings of men who are of corrupt mind.

Romans 9


1 Peter 1

1 Peter 2

So, wouldn't it stand to reason that if someone dies in infancy, they were not part of the elect? Calvinists have no problem believing that all men deserve to go to hell and God has mercy only on a few. If the vast majority of people went to hell throughout history, why is it objectionable if infants, who are equally human, join their ranks?
 
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sdowney717

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So, wouldn't it stand to reason that if someone dies in infancy, they were not part of the elect? Calvinists have no problem believing that all men deserve to go to hell and God has mercy only on a few. If the vast majority of people went to hell throughout history, why is it objectionable if infants, who are equally human, join their ranks?

It is true that the wicked go astray as soon as they are born speaking lies.

Psalm 58

Do you indeed speak righteousness, you silent ones?
Do you judge uprightly, you sons of men?
2 No, in heart you work wickedness;
You weigh out the violence of your hands in the earth.
3 The wicked are estranged from the womb;
They go astray as soon as they are born, speaking lies.

And this is also true that some are God's elect from the womb.
Psalm 22
9 But You are He who took Me out of the womb;
You made Me trust while on My mother’s breasts.
10 I was cast upon You from birth.
From My mother’s womb
You have been My God.
11 Be not far from Me,
For trouble is near;
For there is none to help.

And this is also true

Psalm 37:28
New King James Version (NKJV)
28 For the Lord loves justice,
And does not forsake His saints;
They are preserved forever,
But the descendants of the wicked shall be cut off.

Some are the Lord's from their birth. He does not forsake His saints, they are preserved for eternal life at whatever age they are taken.
Blessed is the man whom the Lord does not impute to them their sins. (age has no bearing on that)

Would Jesus have laid His hands on little children to bless them if they were not to be blessed?

Abraham entreats the Lord God, "Far be it from You to do such a thing as this, to slay the righteous with the wicked, so that the righteous should be as the wicked; far be it from You! Shall not the Judge of all the earth do right?”

I still will leave this in His hands to judge. It is not an age of accountability thing with me, it is purely a matter of His will to be done on earth as it is in heaven.

What did Calvin say about infants? I am curious would you respect what He wrote?
http://www.reformedtheology.ca/baptism.html
Calvin reminds us that the children of the Jews were called a holy seed. They had been made heirs to the covenant and distinguished from the children of the impious. For the same reason, Calvin argues, the children of Christians are considered holy; and by the apostle's testimony they differ from the unclean seed of idolators(1Cor.7:14). It naturally follows then, that if infants share the covenant status with their parent, it is fitting "to give them a sign of that status and of their place in the covenant community"(Packer 215).

This is something I think I will read up on some more.
 
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abacabb3

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I am aware of some of those arguments. On the most part, I feel the position of infant inclusivism forces us to abrogate or add to Scripture. More details of my thought on it are here.

See, I find it possible to read Psalm 22 and understand that David is speaking of being part of the elect, even from the womb, simply because He was chosen before the womb. This is not illogical. However, how can we read Romans 10:14 if there are people that are saved apart from hearing? I think infant inclusivism requires us to ignore was verse and to read Psalm 22 another way, while admitting infant inclusivism as false allows a consistent hermeneutic where both can be true.

Further, the idea that children of Christians are saved is an old idea indeed (going back to Prosper of Aqutaine and Augustine). However, if someone is saved because of the faith of someone else (the parents), I think this leads to an inconsistent soteriology where people are saved by faith in very different ways.

Lastly, how can all be born from the womb not seeking God (Romans 3:11) but somehow, CHristian children are the exception? It opens up tons of interpretive problems.

I appreciate if you read my link, you would get more of the Scripture that I am pulling from in which constitutes my understanding.
 
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sdowney717

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I am aware of some of those arguments. On the most part, I feel the position of infant inclusivism forces us to abrogate or add to Scripture. More details of my thought on it are here.

See, I find it possible to read Psalm 22 and understand that David is speaking of being part of the elect, even from the womb, simply because He was chosen before the womb. This is not illogical. However, how can we read Romans 10:14 if there are people that are saved apart from hearing? I think infant inclusivism requires us to ignore was verse and to read Psalm 22 another way, while admitting infant inclusivism as false allows a consistent hermeneutic where both can be true.

Further, the idea that children of Christians are saved is an old idea indeed (going back to Prosper of Aqutaine and Augustine). However, if someone is saved because of the faith of someone else (the parents), I think this leads to an inconsistent soteriology where people are saved by faith in very different ways.

Lastly, how can all be born from the womb not seeking God (Romans 3:11) but somehow, CHristian children are the exception? It opens up tons of interpretive problems.

I appreciate if you read my link, you would get more of the Scripture that I am pulling from in which constitutes my understanding.

I will read it.
"However, how can we read Romans 10:14 if there are people that are saved apart from hearing?"
You say faith comes by hearing and it does!
But what are they hearing on the inside?
Jesus says those who are of God hear 'God speak' to them.
I started a thread on this a while ago.
http://www.christianforums.com/t7816694/
God gives them spiritual ears to hear spiritual words of God spoken to their spirit. If they hear that, then they are of God.
47 He who is of God hears God’s words; therefore you do not hear, because you are not of God.”

Faith comes by hearing and hearing by the Word of God. In the Greek, Word there is a rhema word from the Holy Spirit, a spoken living Word as opposed to Logos. Can you say an infant does not perhaps understand a rhema Word God would speak to them? If God chooses to do something like this, His Word would accomplish the purpose whereby He sent it.

John leaped in the womb, the babe leaped in her womb for joy!

39 Now Mary arose in those days and went into the hill country with haste, to a city of Judah, 40 and entered the house of Zacharias and greeted Elizabeth. 41 And it happened, when Elizabeth heard the greeting of Mary, that the babe leaped in her womb; and Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Spirit. 42 Then she spoke out with a loud voice and said, “Blessed are you among women, and blessed is the fruit of your womb! 43 But why is this granted to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me? 44 For indeed, as soon as the voice of your greeting sounded in my ears, the babe leaped in my womb for joy.

You can not say it is not possible that an infant could not hear God speak.
This passage it is spoken twice that the babe leaps in her womb. Let everything be established by at least 2 witnesses. The Holy Spirit imparts something into that unborn baby. I think God spoke a living Word of God there.
 
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hedrick

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On Rom 10:14. Please read on. After he talks about the need to preach, and says, but is true that anyone hasn't heard? And his answer is no. He quotes Ps 19:4 LXX. Assuming he's not quoting out of context, the voice that has gone throughout the world is the heavens that tell God's glory. So this is consistent with Rom 2, which speaks of Gentiles who heard God in their heart.

In summary, Rom 10 should be cited as in support of inclusivism.
 
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abacabb3

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On Rom 10:14. Please read on. After he talks about the need to preach, and says, but is true that anyone hasn't heard? And his answer is no. He quotes Ps 19:4 LXX. Assuming he's not quoting out of context, the voice that has gone throughout the world is the heavens that tell God's glory. So this is consistent with Rom 2, which speaks of Gentiles who heard God in their heart.

In summary, Rom 10 should be cited as in support of inclusivism.

Being that you are a Presbyterian, you should know what Paul is saying in the following:
“Their voice has gone out into all the earth,
And their words to the ends of the world.”

But I say, surely Israel did not know, did they? First Moses says,

“I will make you jealous by that which is not a nation,
By a nation without understanding will I anger you.”


Paul is speaking about people groups, not the totality of the population. Paul speaks of in Romans going to preach the Gospel where it has never been preached before (i.e. Spain). This completely discounts any inclusivist conclusions you can draw, because Paul's Rom 10:14 rhetorical question's answer isn't "yes" but "no."

In fact, if you are following Paul's logic, he is simply stating that the Israelites are without excuse and now the gentiles are being drawn into to move them to envy until the full fold of Israelites, both ethnic and by faith, are brought in. This is the whole argument of Rom 9-11. To misunderstand this point is to render the whole section incomprehensible.
 
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sdowney717

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Being that you are a Presbyterian, you should know what Paul is saying in the following:
“Their voice has gone out into all the earth,
And their words to the ends of the world.”

But I say, surely Israel did not know, did they? First Moses says,

“I will make you jealous by that which is not a nation,
By a nation without understanding will I anger you.”


Paul is speaking about people groups, not the totality of the population. Paul speaks of in Romans going to preach the Gospel where it has never been preached before (i.e. Spain). This completely discounts any inclusivist conclusions you can draw, because Paul's Rom 10:14 rhetorical question's answer isn't "yes" but "no."

In fact, if you are following Paul's logic, he is simply stating that the Israelites are without excuse and now the gentiles are being drawn into to move them to envy until the full fold of Israelites, both ethnic and by faith, are brought in. This is the whole argument of Rom 9-11. To misunderstand this point is to render the whole section incomprehensible.

Yes, the only ones who are included are those God has made acceptable in the Beloved.
Otherwise there is no inclusivism. It is very clearly shown that He has predestined us before the world was for what reason?

v6
6 to the praise of the glory of His grace, by which He made us accepted in the Beloved.

I think some people are looking in the mirror, but when they walk away they forget what manner of man they are, what God has done. So it is good to continually reassure our hearts before Him by going back to His word and meditating therein of the goodness of our God.

Ephesians 1
New King James Version (NKJV)
Greeting

1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God,

To the saints who are in Ephesus, and faithful in Christ Jesus:

2 Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.

Redemption in Christ

3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ,

4 just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love,

5 having predestined us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will,

6 to the praise of the glory of His grace, by which He made us accepted in the Beloved.

7 In Him we have redemption through His blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of His grace

8 which He made to abound toward us in all wisdom and prudence,

9 having made known to us the mystery of His will, according to His good pleasure which He purposed in Himself, 10 that in the dispensation of the fullness of the times He might gather together in one all things in Christ, both[a] which are in heaven and which are on earth—in Him.

11 In Him also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestined according to the purpose of Him who works all things according to the counsel of His will,

12 that we who first trusted in Christ should be to the praise of His glory.
 
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hedrick

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Being that you are a Presbyterian, you should know what Paul is saying in the following:
“Their voice has gone out into all the earth,
And their words to the ends of the world.”

But I say, surely Israel did not know, did they? First Moses says,

“I will make you jealous by that which is not a nation,
By a nation without understanding will I anger you.”


Paul is speaking about people groups, not the totality of the population. Paul speaks of in Romans going to preach the Gospel where it has never been preached before (i.e. Spain). This completely discounts any inclusivist conclusions you can draw, because Paul's Rom 10:14 rhetorical question's answer isn't "yes" but "no."

In fact, if you are following Paul's logic, he is simply stating that the Israelites are without excuse and now the gentiles are being drawn into to move them to envy until the full fold of Israelites, both ethnic and by faith, are brought in. This is the whole argument of Rom 9-11. To misunderstand this point is to render the whole section incomprehensible.

Please note that I've never said, nor do I believe, that everyone is saved. So surely Paul is not saying that everyone is saved. I agree that there's an Israel vs the world context here. But still, Paul is arguing, as he did in Rom 1, that God's creation is enough for Gentiles to know God. Just as he did in Rom 1:19-21, he is saying that even Gentiles know enough about God to be responsible for following him, which makes the sin of Israel, which in fact had heard, more serious.

On Rom 10:18, the Word commentary says that syntactically "A question introduced by μή expects a negative answer (as in 9:14), but where the main verb is itself negated (μὴ … οὐ) an affirmative answer is anticipated (BDF §427.2)." Surely the context indicates that anyway, since 18 is followed by the quotation from Ps which talks about God's creation being a witness. That makes no sense if the answer is no.

You refer to Calvin:

Calvin's comment on 10:18: "I then take his quotation according to the proper and genuine meaning of the Prophet; so that the argument will be something of this kind,—God has already from the beginning manifested his divinity to the Gentiles, though not by the preaching of men, yet by the testimony of his creatures; for though the gospel was then silent among them, yet the whole workmanship of heaven and earth did speak and make known its author by its preaching. It hence appears, that the Lord, even during the time in which he confined the favour of his covenant to Israel, did not yet so withdraw from the Gentiles the knowledge of himself, but that he ever kept alive some sparks of it among them."

Of course Calvin is not normally considered an inclusivist. In his commentary on Rom 1, he says that God made himself sufficiently known in creation that people should have been able to have faith in him. But they did not, no doubt due to his plan, which did not include bringing them to faith until Christ. However given Calvin's understanding you can't say that Rom 10:14 means that people can't come to faith through the what we see of God in creation. However Calvin would say that God's plan was primarily to call them through the Gospel, so even though in principle it wasn't needed, it was the method that God chose. But he leaves an opening for God to act as he chooses:

He comments on 10:14 "But were any on this account to contend that God cannot transfer to men the knowledge of himself, except by the instrumentality of preaching, we deny that to teach this was the Apostle’s intention; for he had only in view the ordinary dispensation of God, and did not intend to prescribe a law for the distribution of his grace." That's as close to inclusivism as Calvin comes, and it's actually fairly close.

I believe that puts Calvin in opposition to the use you made of 10:14.
 
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