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Tree of Life: What Creature Was at the Fork?

mzungu

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For the following text, consider 'human' to be a creature than can procreate with a current-day-human (CDH) and non-human to be a creature that cannot procreate with a CDH.

There was a time when the population of humans was zero. There were creatures that were very similar in many ways, but were not human. For there ever to be one human, a non-human is required to birth a human. There were once zero humans, so to get to a billion humans, we can't jump from zero humans to 1,000 humans without first having 100 humans
You are making a fundamental mistake. You are still thinking of modern humans as a species that appeared as they are today. We know today that early modern humans interbred with Neanderthals. In fact we carry about 5% Neanderthal genes. The appearance of Neanderthals to modern humans is obvious but less so in the genetic make up. There was a time when all mammal population was nil. There was a time when all land plants and animals was nil.

Can you tell me exactly to the second when a human becomes an adult? You will have a very hard time simply because the changes are so small that there is no clear distinction other than what we humans give (age).

Look at the Bonobos compared to the Chimpanzees. Bonobos look more human like than Chimpanzees do. Also Bonobos fashion spears to hunt bush babies and make other tools.

Bonobo

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rush1169

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My ask:
rush1169 said:
If there were once zero humans and now humans are abundant, there had to be a first. It's not clear to me why that statement is false. Thank you for any additional details you can provide so I can understand why there was never a first human.

Your answer:

You are making a fundamental mistake. You are still thinking of modern humans as a species that appeared as they are today. We know today that early modern humans interbred with Neanderthals. In fact we carry about 5% Neanderthal genes. The appearance of Neanderthals to modern humans is obvious but less so in the genetic make up. There was a time when all mammal population was nil. There was a time when all land plants and animals was nil.

Can you tell me exactly to the second when a human becomes an adult? You will have a very hard time simply because the changes are so small that there is no clear distinction other than what we humans give (age).

Look at the Bonobos compared to the Chimpanzees. Bonobos look more human like than Chimpanzees do. Also Bonobos fashion spears to hunt bush babies and make other tools.

Bonobo

images

I don't like partially quoting a post, so I've included your full response above. However, I'd like to address your response in sections and I've done that below:

mzungu said:
You are making a fundamental mistake.
That implies to me that there was no first human that is sexually compatible with humans alive today.

mzungu said:
You are still thinking of modern humans as a species that appeared as they are today.
My only assertion is that there had to be a first human born long ago that was sexually compatible with humans today.

mzungu said:
We know today that early modern humans interbred with Neanderthals. In fact we carry about 5% Neanderthal genes. The appearance of Neanderthals to modern humans is obvious but less so in the genetic make up.
I suppose early modern humans could mate with Neanderthals, but my question has to do with today's modern humans mating with the very earliest possible partner.

mzungu said:
There was a time when all mammal population was nil. There was a time when all land plants and animals was nil.
These statements seem to imply that you agree there was a time when there were zero humans that were sexually compatible with modern humans. But, based on your other statements or implications, there was never a time when that first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human was born.

mzungu said:
Can you tell me exactly to the second when a human becomes an adult? You will have a very hard time simply because the changes are so small that there is no clear distinction other than what we humans give (age).
No I cannot. But if the question of determining when a human becomes an adult is meant to clarify why there was never a time when that first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human was born, I don't see the link.

mzungu said:
Look at the Bonobos compared to the Chimpanzees. Bonobos look more human like than Chimpanzees do. Also Bonobos fashion spears to hunt bush babies and make other tools.
OK, Bonobos look more human like than Chipanzees and Bonobos fashion spears to hunt bush babies and make other tools - sound good, but that information doesn't address the assertion.

I don't see why there was never a first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human born. . .
 
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mzungu

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I don't see why there was never a first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human born. . .
You are missing the point. We are sexually compatible with x generations ago of humans. They in turn were compatible with y generations before them and in turn z generations etc. We are compatible with the y generations ago but not with the z generations ago. This means that there is no definitive time when the first modern human appeared.

Here is an example (excerpt from Evolution 101: Speciation)

Ring species are species with a geographic distribution that forms a ring and overlaps at the ends. The many subspecies of Ensatina salamanders in California exhibit subtle morphological and genetic differences all along their range. They all interbreed with their immediate neighbors with one exception: where the extreme ends of the range overlap in Southern California, E. klauberi and E. eschscholtzii do not interbreed. So where do we mark the point of speciation?
 
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rush1169

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Thank you for your response.
You are missing the point. We are sexually compatible with x generations ago of humans. They in turn were compatible with y generations before them and in turn z generations etc. We are compatible with the y generations ago but not with the z generations ago. This means that there is no definitive time when the first modern human appeared.
We are sexually compatible with every previous generation of humans until we go back x generations. At x+1 generations, we are no longer 100% compatible, rather 99.999999% compatible. At, for example, x+10,000 we are only 50% compatible. In other words, a modern human could mate with about 1/2 of the population successfully. At, for example, x+50,000 we are only 0.0000001% sexually compatible. Since we cannot expect an infinite regression, the fertility chain must end at a single human. Why is it wrong to say that there was never a first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human born?

You go almost as far back as I do in saying that modern human is sexually compatible with a generation of humans long ago, but stop short of saying that of that compatible generation (ie group of humans) there must have been a first. By not affirming that there must have been a first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human born, you are saying that many were born simultaneously.

I realize we don't know when and who was birthed that is sexually compatible with modern humans, but it must be that there was a first one born. I realize you disagree with the premise that a first human had to have been born somewhere at some time, but you do agree that humans once did not exist and now they do. If humans didn't exist and now they do, and by 'humans' I mean the kind of human that is sexually compatible with today's humans, how is it that the first human was never born?

I think I know that your answer is "no, there was never a first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human born", but I just cannot find where you qualify your answer.

Is it possible to qualify your answer in a sentence or two?

There was never a first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human born because <fill in the answer>.

The best I can interpret so far is: There was never a first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human born because "we are sexually compatible with x generations ago of humans. They in turn were compatible with y generations before them and in turn z generations etc. We are compatible with the y generations ago but not with the z generations ago. This means that there is no definitive time when the first modern human appeared." However, to say we are sexually compatible back to a certain time and beyond that time we are not, doesn't explain why a first compatible is non-existent.

You are missing the point. We are sexually compatible with x generations ago of humans. They in turn were compatible with y generations before them and in turn z generations etc. We are compatible with the y generations ago but not with the z generations ago. This means that there is no definitive time when the first modern human appeared.

Here is an example (excerpt from Evolution 101: Speciation)

Ring species are species with a geographic distribution that forms a ring and overlaps at the ends. The many subspecies of Ensatina salamanders in California exhibit subtle morphological and genetic differences all along their range. They all interbreed with their immediate neighbors with one exception: where the extreme ends of the range overlap in Southern California, E. klauberi and E. eschscholtzii do not interbreed. So where do we mark the point of speciation?
 
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sfs

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The thing to keep in mind here is that one species will NEVER give birth to another species. A new species is formed when a group of common species seperate into two or more groups. Then over a very long period of time one (or more) of these groups is no longer able to reproduce with the other group(s). There is no definitive point in time when this occurs.
It's dangerous to say "never" in biology (and NEVER is even worse). It's not at all uncommon for plants to produce new species in a single generation by polyploidization, and it happens with some animals as well.
 
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sfs

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Thank you for your response.

We are sexually compatible with every previous generation of humans until we go back x generations. At x+1 generations, we are no longer 100% compatible, rather 99.999999% compatible. At, for example, x+10,000 we are only 50% compatible. In other words, a modern human could mate with about 1/2 of the population successfully. At, for example, x+50,000 we are only 0.0000001% sexually compatible. Since we cannot expect an infinite regression, the fertility chain must end at a single human. Why is it wrong to say that there was never a first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human born?
That's not generally how it works. Rather than being reproductively compatible with half of the population at x+50,000, you would probably have limited reproductive compatibility with the entire population. You would have a reduced chance of having offspring with them, or of those offspring surviving and reproducing in turn. The degree of incompatibility increases the farther you go back, with no clear cut-off at which to declare a new species; some reproductive compatibility often remains well after two populations have split into recognized different species.
 
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rush1169

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That's not generally how it works. Rather than being reproductively compatible with half of the population at x+50,000, you would probably have limited reproductive compatibility with the entire population. You would have a reduced chance of having offspring with them, or of those offspring surviving and reproducing in turn. The degree of incompatibility increases the farther you go back, with no clear cut-off at which to declare a new species; some reproductive compatibility often remains well after two populations have split into recognized different species.

I do fully understand what you're saying. It's just that it seems I have to include mounds of simplified details to my question to establish clarity to the reader as the responses, based on inclusions of what are superfluous information, indicate that my question is not understood.

Your posted correction to a subset of my scenario seems to indicate that you don't agree that there had to have been a first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human born. You don't agree, because "The degree of incompatibility increases the further you go back, with no clear cut-off at which to declare a new species; some reproductive compatibility often remains well after two populations have split into recognized different species."

I'm not concerned with the ones before the first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human was born.

Assuming there was a first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human born, it would be perfectly fine to say that if mated with a modern human, you have only a reasonable, albeit small chance the offspring would be sexually compatible, fully viable in fertility, with a modern human. Most likely its offspring would not be sexually compatible and if a sexually compatible child was never born of this individual, then it would not be the one that had to have existed.

It's difficult to understand why, at least so far, no one thinks there was ever a first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human born. Regardless of when or where.
 
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Kylie

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There was a time when the population of humans was zero. There were creatures that were very similar in many ways, but were not human. For there ever to be one human, a non-human is required to birth a human. There were once zero humans, so to get to a billion humans, we can't jump from zero humans to 1,000 humans without first having 100 humans. Likewise, we can't jump from zero humans to 100 humans without first having 10 humans. It follows, there had to be a first human. That first human is required to have been birthed by a non-human. Now that one human exists, there cannot be a second human unless that first human can birth a human offspring when fertilized by a non-human.

No. There was a population of non-humans. Over a long time, many generations, the population changed, and each new generation in the population became more and more human like until the entire population was human.

KTS says that if CDH can mate with the first human and the first human can mate with the last non-human, then all three are human. It seems you started with 3 humans instead of 1.

Not quite. What I am saying is the difference between parent and offspring is so small that you'd always consider them a separate species. Remember my coloured square analogy? If you take any two squares next to each other, you'd consider them to be the same colour because the difference between them is so small you can't notice it. But over time, the colour does change from blue to red.

Sectio says that there was a group of non-humans. That group separated from each other and after a long time one group could not mate with the other group. It seems you started with non-humans and ended with two groups of non-humans that couldn't breed (divergent evolution).

This is the same thing, basically. I'll stick with a variation of my coloured squares.

Imagine you have a group of squares that are all coloured blue. They live in the forest. One day, the river nearby changes course (maybe due to a flood, erosion, earthquake or some other reason), and now the river goes straight the the middle of the forest of the blue squares. Some blue squares are on one side, the other blue squares are on the other. Now, blue squares eat a few things. They can eat worms, and they can also eat fruit that is pollinated by mice.

But because the river goes through the forest, there's a problem. The mice that pollinate the fruit are all stuck on the north side of the river. The north side will get plenty of fruit, but on the south side, the fruit will die out because there are no mice to pollinate it. And all the worms are on the south side, and they can't get to the north side because they can't cross the river.

So, there are blue squares on the north side and on the south side. But they have different problems. The blue squares on the north side will adapt to be better able to survive on the fruit, because it grows where they are and it is now the only food available to them. As they become gradually better adapted to fruit eating (remember, before they had to be good at both kinds of food, but now they can specialize in fruit), they slowly become green squares over many generations.

But the blue squares on the south side won't become well adapted for fruit eating. Why would they? It doesn't give them any benefit, because they can't get any fruit. But they will become better adapted for worm eating, and they slowly become yellow squares as a result.

So, we started off with a single population of blue squares which were divided into two groups. Each group faced different pressures and adapted in different ways. It's the same story as my original blue to red squares, except this time we split the blue square group into two groups that have different challenges to face. The different challenges drive the evolution of each group in different directions.

Incidently, this is why sharks and dolphins look so similar. They are both facing the same challenges. Both have to hunt in water. But they still bear signs of where they really came from.

mzunga says assume human baby is Creature A and when that baby is old we call it Creature Z. For every microsecond that elapses, that human is slightly different so we could call it Creature A1, A2, A3. You could further timeslice to approach infinity and label each of those as a different creature. It seems you illustrated generic evolution using the imagery of a baby growing old.

Yeah, he's saying the same thing as my original coloured squares thing, except he's using the idea of different ages instead of different colours.

If there were once zero humans and now humans are abundant, there had to be a first. It's not clear to me why that statement is false. Thank you for any additional details you can provide so I can understand why there was never a first human.

Go back to my analogy with the coloured squares. The squares start off blue and gradually change to red. There's never going to be a point where the squares stop being blue and instantly start being red. If you take any square that you consider to be blue, then the square just before it is also going to be what you would call blue. It has the tiniest bit of red mixed in with it, but despite that, you'd still call it blue. So blue squares never come from red squares, they always come from blue squares. Just blue squares that aren't quite as blue.
 
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mzungu

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Go back to my analogy with the coloured squares. The squares start off blue and gradually change to red. There's never going to be a point where the squares stop being blue and instantly start being red. If you take any square that you consider to be blue, then the square just before it is also going to be what you would call blue. It has the tiniest bit of red mixed in with it, but despite that, you'd still call it blue. So blue squares never come from red squares, they always come from blue squares. Just blue squares that aren't quite as blue.
This whole "First compatible human" question reminds me of the question some people ask: "Where is the centre of the universe?". The answer of course is there is no particular centre; any place in the universe is a "centre" of the universe. Some people need to have a way point in which they place their beliefs/existence. Simply put they need their place in time!
 
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rush1169

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No. There was a population of non-humans. Over a long time, many generations, the population changed, and each new generation in the population became more and more human like until the entire population was human.

I said there were once zero humans and later there were lots of humans, so there must have been a first human born of a non-human. You say 'no' because 'each new generation in the population became more and more human-like until the entire population was human.' A 'population' is a homogenous group label used to let the listener know that the speaker is referring to all the individuals. A 'generation' is a homogenous group label used to let the listener know that the speaker is referring to a subset of the population of individuals. Populations and generations don't engage in procreation. Therefore, you must mean when you said 'each new generation in the population became more and more human-like until the entire population was human' that each new group of individuals born became more and more human-like until finally a new group of individuals born were human and, after all the current living prior generations died the entire population of individuals were human. In other words, a group of non-humans birthed a group of humans.

KTS said:
What I am saying is the difference between parent and offspring is so small that you'd always consider them a separate [same?] species. Remember my coloured square analogy? If you take any two squares next to each other, you'd consider them to be the same colour because the difference between them is so small you can't notice it. But over time, the colour does change from blue to red.

KTS said:
This is the same thing, basically. I'll stick with a variation of my coloured squares.

Imagine you have a group of squares that are all coloured blue. . . . .<snip for brevity>. . . . The squares start off blue and gradually change to red. There's never going to be a point where the squares stop being blue and instantly start being red. If you take any square that you consider to be blue, then the square just before it is also going to be what you would call blue. It has the tiniest bit of red mixed in with it, but despite that, you'd still call it blue. So blue squares never come from red squares, they always come from blue squares. Just blue squares that aren't quite as blue.

I understand what you are saying and the gradual, divergent evolution analogy keeps coming up so I need to add this:

Sexual compatibility is all or nothing. By 'sexual compatibility' I'm referring to procreation such that the offspring is a 100% viable, healthy, and fertile individual. Not kinda viable, kinda healthy, or kinda fertile. All or nothing. Gradualism cannot exist at conception. Whatever is going to be born as a result of the conception is a product of an individual male and female. Neither the population nor the generation are making a baby and the couple engaged in the act aren't gradually mixing genes of generations or populations.

Now, when I ask "Was there ever a first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human born?", if one is going to explain why the answer is 'no' they should not include references to populations, generations, or the idea of gradualism. Populations, generations, and gradual change do not have sex and gradually make babies :)
 
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mzungu

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I said there were once zero humans and later there were lots of humans, so there must have been a first human born of a non-human. You say 'no' because 'each new generation in the population became more and more human-like until the entire population was human.' A 'population' is a homogenous group label used to let the listener know that the speaker is referring to all the individuals. A 'generation' is a homogenous group label used to let the listener know that the speaker is referring to a subset of the population of individuals. Populations and generations don't engage in procreation. Therefore, you must mean when you said 'each new generation in the population became more and more human-like until the entire population was human' that each new group of individuals born became more and more human-like until finally a new group of individuals born were human and, after all the current living prior generations died the entire population of individuals were human. In other words, a group of non-humans birthed a group of humans.





I understand what you are saying and the gradual, divergent evolution analogy keeps coming up so I need to add this:

Sexual compatibility is all or nothing. By 'sexual compatibility' I'm referring to procreation such that the offspring is a 100% viable, healthy, and fertile individual. Not kinda viable, kinda healthy, or kinda fertile. All or nothing. Gradualism cannot exist at conception. Whatever is going to be born as a result of the conception is a product of an individual male and female. Neither the population nor the generation are making a baby and the couple engaged in the act aren't gradually mixing genes of generations or populations.

Now, when I ask "Was there ever a first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human born?", if one is going to explain why the answer is 'no' they should not include references to populations, generations, or the idea of gradualism. Populations, generations, and gradual change do not have sex and gradually make babies :)
Yes at some point there were humans that were 100% compatible but that does not mean they were modern humans. Take the Neanderthals; they were a different type of human (they went extinct), yet they interbred with humans successfully. Is there a point you are trying to make?
 
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rush1169

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Yes at some point there were humans that were 100% compatible but that does not mean they were modern humans.
If at some point there were humans, does it follow that you agree at some point there was born the first human?

What is the implication intended when you qualify your answer by saying "but that does not mean they were modern humans"?

Take the Neanderthals; they were a different type of human (they went extinct), yet they interbred with humans successfully.
If Neanderthals and humans did interbreed, you've jumped to a point in time well after the first sexually-compatible-with-modern-humans human was born.
Is there a point you are trying to make?
Yes. Since there was a first human born it would necessarily been born of two parents that were not human.
 
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sfs

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What animals give birth to a new species in a single generation?
Parthenogenic insects, mostly. It's rare and it's inferential, since all that's been seen is that polyploidization has occurred, but it does seem to happen.
 
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sfs

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Sexual compatibility is all or nothing. By 'sexual compatibility' I'm referring to procreation such that the offspring is a 100% viable, healthy, and fertile individual. Not kinda viable, kinda healthy, or kinda fertile. All or nothing. Gradualism cannot exist at conception.
If that's your definition, there are no sexually compatible humans, now or in the past. No human is 100% healthy and maximally fit; all carry deleterious variants that reduce their probability of surviving and of reproducing. The number of deleterious variants simply increases as you combine more widely diverged genomes. (It could happen that there was a single variant that would have a large negative effect in an archaic genetic background but not in a modern one; in that scenario, one could pick the first individual with the modern variant as the first human, but there's no reason for thinking that had to have happened.)
 
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Papias

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rush wrote:

Sexual compatibility is all or nothing. By 'sexual compatibility' I'm referring to procreation such that the offspring is a 100% viable, healthy, and fertile individual. Not kinda viable, kinda healthy, or kinda fertile. All or nothing. Gradualism cannot exist at conception.

Simply false.

For health, you certainly can have degrees of healthiness, and also have degrees of liklihood of diseases. A birth could have a 0.05% chance of lung issues, or a 1% chance, or a 30% chance - and on top of that, the lung issues could be more or less severe. Even with "healthy" babies today, many, if not most, have some issue. The reality of similar gradualism is why we have an APGAR "score" at all.

Plus, there is more gradualism when you talk about conception. After all, any couple trying to have a kid knows that conception isn't 100% every month even with our human population today. With every month of sex, you've only got a 30% or so chance of pregnancy. Less compatability might move that to 20%, 10%, 5% or less. We see that as a woman ages, anyway. People trying to become parents usually have unprotected sex for a number of months, or more, before getting pregnant.

So if a modern human went back in a time machine, and it took 5 years of sex, finally resulting in a live baby with a few more health issues than an average baby today (but much better than the worst ones today), would that still be "human"? How about 8 years and sicker? 7 years and mostly healthy?

Humanity based on conception isn't all or nothing, any more than Kaylies purple squares are "all blue" or "all red".



If there were once zero humans and now humans are abundant, there had to be a first. It's not clear to me why that statement is false. Thank you for any additional details you can provide so I can understand why there was never a first human.


Because you are playing a word game (look closely at how your definition of human changes in your story). Your own decision as how to define "human" will determine when that line is. Yes, there was a first, but all of the children of that one may fail your defintion, and it may be another 4,000 years before the second "human". You definition will, by necessity, be aribitrary, just like the definition of "hot".

If I were to heat up a room initially colder than freezing, it will take, say, 2 hours to become "hot". So would you say that one moment was the first "hot" moment, and the ones before it were "cold"? So that first "hot" moment followed right after a cold moment? (analagous to having cold "parent moments").

Also, did you see the tree I posted that did show creatures at the forks?

In Christ-

Papias
 
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rush1169

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If that's your definition, there are no sexually compatible humans, now or in the past. No human is 100% healthy and maximally fit; all carry deleterious variants that reduce their probability of surviving and of reproducing. The number of deleterious variants simply increases as you combine more widely diverged genomes. (It could happen that there was a single variant that would have a large negative effect in an archaic genetic background but not in a modern one; in that scenario, one could pick the first individual with the modern variant as the first human, but there's no reason for thinking that had to have happened.)

Papias said:
For health, you certainly can have degrees of healthiness, and also have degrees of liklihood of diseases. A birth could have a 0.05% chance of lung issues, or a 1% chance, or a 30% chance - and on top of that, the lung issues could be more or less severe. Even with "healthy" babies today, many, if not most, have some issue.

Plus, there is more gradualism when you talk about conception. After all, any couple trying to have a kid knows that conception isn't 100% every month even with our human population today.

I agree. I was just trying to clarify the questions for those who couldn't understand what I mean by 'human'. My intention was to help the understanding by the reader what I mean by 'human'. Humans can't reproduce with non-humans (at least as far as we can tell amongst the current living creatures). So what I mean by 100% viable, healthy, fertile offspring was the general idea of not birthing a man-pig, ape-man, or even something like a liger or a non-fertile human or a human that dies before reproductive maturity. Readers could not understand the premise. I'd thought it obvious that I'm not talking about perfect reproduction.

I know the assertion is very simple and I'm talking to smart people. Why the tangents and misunderstandings of such a simple idea?
 
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rush1169

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Rush said:
If there were once zero humans and now humans are abundant, there had to be a first. It's not clear to me why that statement is false. Thank you for any additional details you can provide so I can understand why there was never a first human.
Papias said:
Because you are playing a word game (look closely at how your definition of human changes in your story). Your own decision as how to define "human" will determine when that line is. Yes, there was a first, but all of the children of that one may fail your defintion, and it may be another 4,000 years before the second "human".

So, I asked, "Why was there never a first human?"

You answered, "Because you are playing a word game and keep changing the definition of human". You answered again, "Yes, there was a first. . .and it may be another 4,000 years before the second 'human'".

But before you answered, you told me how there is no such thing as sexual compatibility and conception is a gradual process and I keep changing parameters such that it's impossible to understand the assertion.

All of that combined: A 'yes', then a 'no', then a declaration of impossible conditions, and a declaration that conception is a gradual process tells me that you don't understand my question.

Actually, I think most are being coy. Obviously, there had to be a first human and to be first, it had to have been born of non-human parents. There is no way around it.
 
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sfs

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I agree. I was just trying to clarify the questions for those who couldn't understand what I mean by 'human'. My intention was to help the understanding by the reader what I mean by 'human'. Humans can't reproduce with non-humans (at least as far as we can tell amongst the current living creatures). So what I mean by 100% viable, healthy, fertile offspring was the general idea of not birthing a man-pig, ape-man, or even something like a liger or a non-fertile human or a human that dies before reproductive maturity. Readers could not understand the premise. I'd thought it obvious that I'm not talking about perfect reproduction.

I know the assertion is very simple and I'm talking to smart people. Why the tangents and misunderstandings of such a simple idea?
I don't misunderstand your idea; I just think it's wrong. You have this idea of a clear dividing line, beyond which reproduction isn't really possible and within which it is. We're telling you that there probably isn't such a line. You certainly haven't given me, as a human geneticist, any reason to think there is.
 
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