Either way, if God does not know the future or not, He could have stopped anything from happening. I would hope you do not think God could not intervene in an affair just because He did not foreknow of it. If so, your argument here doesn't really work. If you don't think so, God appears to be weak in regards of omnipotence.
It's actually nothing like that. This is simply a false analogy's. It is incomparable to God's foreknowledge and humanity for a few relevant reasons. First, God is not giving anyone a deadly medication. God, in the beginning, made everything inherently good. It was not till man sinned that moral and natural evil came into existence. Second, God is not 'installing' anything defective into creation. Again, He has made everything good. Man is the one that 'installed' defect into creation, and that is true whether God foreknow of A&E or not.
The whole point of foreknowledge is that God knows beforehand what is going to happen. It is completely viable that God foreknew A&E choice to eat from the tree, even it being a test. Foreknowledge is not incompatible with free will, either. So A&E still choose which course they would take, and are responsible for their sin regardless of God foreknowing of it. I assume you disagree, but the thing is you haven't logically supported your reasons for that.
And again, the analogy is false. The engineer would not know his design would fail, which is exactly why he does test it. God knows His design would fail, but that doesn't make Him responsible. I've gave a reason for this, but you did not address it.
God is not the cause of all by way of foreknowing everything, either, as has been said. Knowledge does not equate to causation. The correlation is simply not there. It is actually the fallacy of Post Hoc to assume otherwise. God is merely consciously aware of all the hate and death, but that does not necessarily mean He caused it or wants it to happen.
God still allows free will considering foreknowledge. It is not the libertarian type of free will, as that is inconsistent.
What exempts God from using His foreknowledge in other instances? Is that He is simply unable to, or wills not to? If the first, again He seems to lack omnipotence. If the second, what relevant reason does He have to will to know only somethings?
If Jehovah God had decided not to make man, then neither you nor I would be existing. However, with the words at Genesis 1:1, that says: "In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth", God established the earth as being special in his eyes, being the only planet in the universe that was created to have life on it. Jehovah God set aside the earth as unique.
God could intervene in any affair that he deems necessary to accomplish his purpose. However, he
selectively chooses to look into the future and reveals details to his people.(Amos 3:7) Jesus said in prayer to his Father: "“I publicly praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have
hidden these things from the
wise and intellectual ones and have
revealed them to babes."(Matt 11:25)
Thus, those who are "babes" or teachable by God, are the ones who are privileged to understand what Jehovah has unveiled through his word, the Bible, what he choose to see in the future.
You obviously have trouble carefully reading, for had you read what was written, I did not say that ' God is giving anyone medication ", but had he known in advance that the making of man would have set in motion all the "woes" on the earth, then he would have been guilty. If
you knew in advance that a tire that you put on your car was defective and was going to blowout, causing a serious accident that claimed the life of someone, would you be innocent or guilty ?
That is why God provided a means of testing Adam and Eve, with a tree that he designated as his own.(Gen 2:17) He allowed events to unfold naturally, without using his foreknowledge. This permitted
free will, which is a treasure when used properly. However, Adam and Eve abused their privilege of free will, taking that which is not theirs. And it should be noted that God only gave the first human couple one command, not micromanaging their lives. These however proved to be irresponsible.
He chose
not to use his foreknowledge with regard to Adam and Eve, but allowed the scenario to play out, and then was deeply hurt when they did rebel, even causing Jehovah to have a momentary loss of words, as seen at the end Genesis 3:22 (called an ellipsis). Would Jehovah God had to of
questioned Adam if he was already well aware what has transpired ? (Gen 3:11-13)
That is why Hanani told king Asa: "For as regards Jehovah, his eyes are roving through all the earth to show his strength in behalf of those whose heart is complete toward him."(2 Chron 16:9) If he already knew how a person would respond, would he need to to be "roving through all the earth....of those whose heart is complete toward him", searching for such ones ?
And again you fail to carefully read what is written, for in the illustration of the engineer, had he known that that his product would fail, would he need to test it ? I work on cars for a living, and if it can be determined that part will fail, then would it be sound practice to place it on the car ?
Had God known in advance that the first human couple would rebel, then he would have been knowingly guilty of setting in motion all the troubles we see, rather than as my mother used to say "nip it in the bud". If
you knew in advance that you would have a car accident that day, would you still get in the car and drive off ?
So again, God is
selective in his foreknowledge, and uses it only when it fits his purpose, having it written down in such Bible books as Isaiah, Joel, Obadiah (concerning Edom), Daniel (chps 2, 4, 7, 8, 11, 12), Ezekiel, Zechariah and Revelation, to name a few.
In the first prophecy at Genesis 3:15, God established that "the serpent", Satan, would be ' bruised in the head ', some 7000 years after this prophecy was given.(Rev 20:7-10) He used his foreknowledge to reveal the end result for the benefit of his people.