Hypocrisy of pointing to OT?

AChristian4Life

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If Jesus nailed the OT to the cross with his death and came to bring a new covenant how come some Christians point to the OT to defend certain ideas? Aren't those ideas null and void since in Jeremiah 31 the prophecy was that the Chosen People did not obey the law and therefore a new covenant was made?
 

tzadik

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Who is talking about Genesis or Malachi? I was speaking figuratively that Jesus came to fulfill the law and gave us a new covenant in Jeremiah 31 so if the old law is no longer applicable why are some verses pointed to?

You said "OT" which last time I checked means 'Old Testament'.

What do you understand the word fulfill to mean? do away with?
So He came to fulfill and do away with the Law and the Prophets--as in they are no longer applicable?
 
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AChristian4Life

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I am talking about the Old Testament as a whole not one specific part.

31 “The days are coming,” declares the LORD,
“when I will make a new covenant
with the people of Israel
and with the people of Judah.
32 It will not be like the covenant
I made with their ancestors
when I took them by the hand
to lead them out of Egypt,
because they broke my covenant,
though I was a husband to[d] them,[e]”
declares the LORD.
 
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tzadik

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I am talking about the Old Testament as a whole not one specific part.

31 “The days are coming,” declares the LORD,
“when I will make a new covenant
with the people of Israel
and with the people of Judah.
32 It will not be like the covenant
I made with their ancestors
when I took them by the hand
to lead them out of Egypt,
because they broke my covenant,
though I was a husband to[d] them,[e
declares the LORD.

Where in that text do you see "the Old Testament as a whole"?
Again what do you mean when you say Jesus came to fulfill the Law? Did He do away with the Law and the Prophets?
 
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tzadik

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From what I understand most Christians do not believe the old law (Tanach) is currently applicable.

Let me try to understand your OP.
You do not believe that the "OT" was done away with correct?
You are merely stating the argument that it would be hypocritical to say that the "OT" is done away with and still point out things in the "OT" correct?
 
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Hentenza

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The OT law is divided between ceremonial and moral laws. The ceremonial laws are not applicable to the Christian since there is neither Jew nor Greek (gentile) in the church and the church makes faith in the Lord the uniqueness that the ceremonial (and clothing and food laws) laws gave the Israelites. The moral laws are still applicable but summed up in Jesus two greatest commandments.
 
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Hentenza

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Any law would be moral law because if you believe the Bible is ordained by God the law is given by God.

Then you should not object to what the scripture teaches.

Mark 7
18 And He *said to them, “Are you so lacking in understanding also? Do you not understand that whatever goes into the man from outside cannot defile him, 19 because it does not go into his heart, but into his stomach, and [g]is eliminated?” (Thus He declared all foods clean.) 20 And He was saying, “That which proceeds out of the man, that is what defiles the man. 21 For from within, out of the heart of men, proceed the evil thoughts, [h]fornications, thefts, murders, adulteries, 22 deeds of coveting and wickedness, as well as deceit, sensuality, [i]envy, slander, [j]pride and foolishness. 23 All these evil things proceed from within and defile the man.” (NASB)
 
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Hentenza

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Hentenza who said I object to what scripture teaches? I am asking a question of those who do not believe in keeping laws in the OT why they can point to some as justification for their beliefs while not adhering to others.

I posted the verses in response to your claim that dietary laws are moral laws. The new covenant includes the cleansing of all foods, therefore, a Christian is not under the biblical obligation to eat "kosher". God's morality is the same in both major covenants since God's morals do not change.
 
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tzadik

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The OT law is divided between ceremonial and moral laws. The ceremonial laws are not applicable to the Christian since there is neither Jew nor Greek (gentile) in the church and the church makes faith in the Lord the uniqueness that the ceremonial (and clothing and food laws) laws gave the Israelites. The moral laws are still applicable but summed up in Jesus two greatest commandments.

Would be so kind as to show me where God divides His Law into 2 sections?
 
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