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Besides it isn't in the 10 Cs as listed in any of my various bibles and even the liberal ones.
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Do you agree that christians should keep the 10 Commandments? (3)
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There isa sayin - speaking of the devil. An another one is if that ain't the kettle callin the pot black Ias don't know ratly what is.
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I don't understand. Are you saying Pauls teaching has changed since then? Or that abstaining from fornication was abolished like circumcision?
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None of these 10C threads seem to be about the 10 Cs. Because the "no law" argument in them isn't limited to the 10cs but any rules at all. So the anti 10 C argument is usually arguing against any rules. All rules found in the NC are shunned as if they were foolishness by the usual anti law debate that also shuns the 10 Cs.
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So I guess the real deal is that you've been beaten and have to find a new avenue to enforce obedience to a rote list of rules.
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So I guess the real deal is that you've been beaten and have to find a new avenue to inforce obedience to a rote list of rules.
No. But if it makes you feel better you can think so.
You don't see where I or the NT are coming from at all. I see your point of Grace without the law. And about OC law like circumcision not included in the NC. However its you and not i that are taking the "one size fits all" approach to Pauls teaching and its far from that. Paul teaches many things and i post them.
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Right.
Rebels, rebel, that's what makes them rebels.
They can't stand anyone telling them what to do even if it's good for them and everyone around them.
God did not give us His commandments for His good, He gave them to us for our good.
If one submits to God and loves God they will keep His commandments just like Jesus did; they will follow in His footsteps. That's what being a Christian is.
This is not difficult.
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If it is not difficult, then why haven't you been able to keep the Sabbath holy yet according to God's explicit instructions?
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UNDERSTANDING THE LAW.
The same author Paul wrote:
Ephesians 2:15 - Having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances, so as to create in Himself one new man from the two, thus making peace,
Romans 3:31 - Do we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary, we establish the law.
There is a law abolished, which contained in ordinances, and there is a law established, means exalted, up hold and glorified, means the author admit the authority and jurisdiction of the law remains for him, despite his new faith in Christ as a Jew.
Romans 2:13 - For not the hearers of the law are just in the sight of God, but the doers of the law will be justified;
Romans 3:20 - Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin. Galatians 2:16 - knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law but by faith in Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the law; for by the works of the law no flesh shall be justified.
Which one is true?
Romans 10:5- For Moses writes about the righteousness which is of the law, The man who does those things shall live by them.
Galatians 3:12 - Yet the law is not of faith, but the man who does them shall live by them.
2 Cor. 3:6,7 - who also made us sufficient as ministers of the new covenant, not of the letter but of the Spirit; for the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life. But if the ministry of death, written and engraved on stones
How could a law that kills, the ministry of death engraved on stone tablets may justify the law doers to live?
How could you comprehend this seemingly contradiction by the same author about the law? Since it is written there by the Spirit, all what we must do is accept both as it is, because it is the truth.
But Christians of this days prefer to use what suit them and discard what is against their believe. This is not the right way to study the Scripture; we must study to come to a complete understanding of the Scripture till there is no more seemingly contradiction.
To be continued.
The same author Paul wrote:
Ephesians 2:15 - Having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances, so as to create in Himself one new man from the two, thus making peace,
Romans 3:31 - Do we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary, we establish the law.
There is a law abolished, which contained in ordinances, and there is a law established, means exalted, up hold and glorified, means the author admit the authority and jurisdiction of the law remains for him, despite his new faith in Christ as a Jew.
Romans 2:13 - For not the hearers of the law are just in the sight of God, but the doers of the law will be justified;
Romans 3:20 - Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin. Galatians 2:16 - knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law but by faith in Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the law; for by the works of the law no flesh shall be justified.
Which one is true?
Romans 10:5- For Moses writes about the righteousness which is of the law, The man who does those things shall live by them.
Galatians 3:12 - Yet the law is not of faith, but the man who does them shall live by them.
2 Cor. 3:6,7 - who also made us sufficient as ministers of the new covenant, not of the letter but of the Spirit; for the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life. But if the ministry of death, written and engraved on stones
How could a law that kills, the ministry of death engraved on stone tablets may justify the law doers to live?
How could you comprehend this seemingly contradiction by the same author about the law? Since it is written there by the Spirit, all what we must do is accept both as it is, because it is the truth.
But Christians of this days prefer to use what suit them and discard what is against their believe. This is not the right way to study the Scripture; we must study to come to a complete understanding of the Scripture till there is no more seemingly contradiction.
To be continued.
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Romans 3:20 - Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin. Galatians 2:16 - knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law but by faith in Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the law; for by the works of the law no flesh shall be justified.
But here is the great promise for the law doers:
Revelation 22:12-14. And behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to give to every one according to his work. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the Last. Blessed are those who do His commandments, that they may have the right to the tree of life, and may enter through the gates into the city.
How could it be connected to come to the truth of the Gospel of Christ?
To be continued .
But here is the great promise for the law doers:
Revelation 22:12-14. And behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to give to every one according to his work. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the Last. Blessed are those who do His commandments, that they may have the right to the tree of life, and may enter through the gates into the city.
How could it be connected to come to the truth of the Gospel of Christ?
To be continued .
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So what is an ordinance? My dictionary says and authoritive order or command. I would have said a written law. A written law is an authoritive order and a command to perform as required.
What does establish mean as used here in 3:31? I've provided discussion on the verse and word with no return comments. Why?
And what is a doer? If one can be a doer do they need a redeemer? No! The problem is of course as the Bible points out that infact there are no doers - Ps 14:3, 53:3, Isa 64:6, Rom 3:23.
This contradicts your intended meaning of the previous quote. Interesting. I sure wouldn't have used them both. Is there confusion? I think so.
Ditto above comment. If one can't be justified by the works of the law, why do them? The law only condemns and justifies no one as stated. Obviously one can't be righteous or possess righteousness by obedience - real or feined to the law. The law doesn't provide righteousness. The law only provides for condemnation and death.
Ah the escape hatch is opened by a law pusher no less to not be obligated to the law. GLORY!!!
Great question. Now where is the answer? I had to look to make sure who authored the above statement. I'm in a little bit of a shock, that is puzzled by it. Just doesn'r fit with the argument offered.
Hmm! IOW you don't understand.
There is a sayin - ain't that the kettle callin the pot black?
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Great question! I have asked it as well. Inquiring minds wish to know. Hoping they answer the question fully and honestly. My faith is extremely weak concerning the matter.
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Hey at least the anti 10 Cs crowd are talking about them. If it weren' for the consistant naming at least of the last 6 of the 10 I might be inclined to believ you some what more in this point. However it has been established firmly fromprevious post what the posistion really is. Back peddling only works for the johnny come lately who has no context to base a rightful opinion on.
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