I'm just curious because Jesus learns and finds things out in the Gospels, which doesn't seem like a conditional possibility for an omniscient.
## The gospels don't suggest that - Luke shows Him asking questions, as does John 11; to name no other places.I'm just curious because Jesus learns and finds things out in the Gospels, which doesn't seem like a conditional possibility for an omniscient.
Mark 13:32 states:This is a good question...never though about it...God is all knowing and Jesus is a part of GOd...so you woul dassume he was too, but the Gospels make it seem like he had to learn and grow in knowledge just like every other person. Which leads to to believe that since Jesus was man, he was sent down with the normal brain functioning of any person, he had to learn.
Jesus didnt know the time of his second coming. How do we explain this when we know that Jesus is a member of the Trinitarian God?But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father (NIV).
So when Jesus was functioning as a man, he was not omniscient.Briefly, heres my take on things.6 We need to think of the divine attributes in two categories: moral attributes and amoral attributes. The moral attributes are those attributes that speak of Gods moralityjustice, mercy, love, goodness, kindness, etc. The amoral attributes are those that speak of Gods sovereigntyomniscience, omnipresence, omnipotence, infinity, eternity, immutability, etc. What is interesting to observe in the Gospels is that a clear line of demarcation can be seen with reference to Jesus: he never fails to function on the level of the moral attributes, but frequently does not display the amoral attributes. In other words, the moral attributes seem to be hard-wired to his human consciousness, while the amoral attributes seem to be subject to the guidance of the Holy Spirit and come to the human conscious level at the Spirits choosing. At the same time, since he does occasionally demonstrate the amoral attributes, there is no denying his deity. Although Jesus Christ has both a human and divine nature, he is not two persons. He has one consciousness. It is not enough to say that his divine nature does not always operate at the level of his human consciousness. Why? Because it is only the amoral attributes that fit this description. It is partially because of this distinction that I hold to the impeccability of Christthat is, that he was not able to sin (which is saying more than that he was able not to sin). Further, it is partially because of my christology that I view Gods attributes as amoral and moral instead of as communicable and incommunicable.7 In any event, if we recognize that Jesus functioned as a mere man in the amoral realm much if not most of the time, we can begin to understand why the scriptures can speak of him as able to relate to us. As man, he represents us to God; as God, he represents the Father to us. He is the perfect mediator, the perfect high priest, and the perfect sacrifice.
Daniel Wallace has written an excellent article about Jesus’ omniscience that I would recommend, “When did Jesus know?” Wallace concludes his article with this summary:
So when Jesus was functioning as a man, he was not omniscient.
Sincerely, Spencer
If Jesus had insight into the spiritual world (Luke 10:18; 22:31-32; Mark 9:29; Daniel 10:13), then how could He not know the day and hour of His own coming (Matt. 24:36)?
Because He was concealing His divinity (Phil. 2:7 but emptied Himself...).
Jesus was 100% divine while He was in the flesh (so He had Omnipotence, Omniscience, and possibly Omnipresence). He merely concealed His divinity.
I'm just curious because Jesus learns and finds things out in the Gospels, which doesn't seem like a conditional possibility for an omniscient.
knowing peoples' thoughts and such (thinking of what the disciples were arguing about on the road to wherever),
The fact that He HAD the power, is a definate, but that He limited Himself and he could have used all that He had before He came as a helpless babe.
no, he couldnt be omniscient, he was a man. i doubt he even died at all
Please present your evidence. "I think" is not evidence. I await your evidence that goes beyond your assertions and opinions.concerning his fisical body, I think we do not have evidence (in 4 Gospels; the NT or the OT) that Jesus did medically died. Probably all his vital fuctions did seaced, but his organs, tisues and cells probably did not died. I compare to a dead man from wich are exctracted organs to be transplanted. Those organs are not dead by alive after the body has seaced to live (as a body)
But he did died in a spiritual way of talking.
Goinheix,
Please present your evidence. "I think" is not evidence. I await your evidence that goes beyond your assertions and opinions.
Oz
If you want to present evidence about the nature of Christ's death, please rely on the primary source evidence and not from your imagination - "I think".I think; just I think. I have not evidence, I can not give you any verse to support what I think. That is why I said "I think", because I am not sure my self of being right or wrong.
Anyhow, this present thread is about Jesus being omnicient or not. We shall respect the treath and keep focused. If you want to discus Jesus death, open an specific treath and I will tell you what make me think that Jesus body never did died.
If you want to present evidence about the nature of Christ's death, please rely on the primary source evidence and not from your imagination - "I think".
If you have no evidence about the nature of Christ's death, we have nothing to discuss. Your assertions prove nothing.
Oz