Bible2+

*Matthew 24:23 / *Mt. 24:23 - The "then" in Matthew 24:23-26 and Mark 13:21 refers to the same time as the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24, when there will be false Christs and false prophets (Matthew 24:5,11), and which time God has shortened (Mark 13:20...

(Re: Does not Satan know that there will be a pre-tribulation rapture, so he has filled TV with stories about aliens causing mass disappearances?) Our doctrine must not be based on any TV fiction, but on the Bible (Acts 17:11b), which does not say that anyone will disappear at the rapture, or...

(Re: Does Matthew 24:31 refer to a gathering from heaven only?) Matthew 24:31's parallel verse of Mark 13:27 shows that the Church will be gathered together from both heaven and earth. (See 1 Thessalonians 3:13 below) ~ (Re: If you think that Matthew 24:31 and Mark 13:27 refer to the...

*Matthew 24:34 / *Mt. 24:34 - (Re: *Fig tree / *Generation) Matthew 24:34 refers to the fulfillment of "all these things", all the events of the future Tribulation, and Jesus Christ's Second Coming and the gathering together (rapture) of the Church "immediately after" the Tribulation (Matthew...

(Ready) See Matthew 24:44 above. ~ (Re: Does Matthew 25:10 mean that "midnight" cannot be mid-tribulation, but must be right at Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming?) No, for Matthew 25:10 does not require that the virgins without extra oil had no time to buy more. Jesus Christ is very...

*Matthew 25:42 / *Mt. 25:42 - This does not require that those people never believed in Jesus Christ, only that they refused to help a Christian in need, without repentance. Also, Matthew 25:42 does not say that they never did a good work of faith. They could have done many good works of faith...

*Mark 9:45-46 / *Mk. 9:45 - What is eternally punishing (Matthew 25:46, Revelation 14:10-11) about the future, "Gehenna" hell (Luke 12:5, Greek: G1067) is fire eternally burning the physical body, and worms eternally eating the physical body (Mark 9:46, Isaiah 66:24). The physical bodies of...

(Re: Does God's *omniscience negate our free will, so that either God is not omniscient, or we have no free will?) (*Free will *symphony - *movie analogy / *Block universe) God is definitely omniscient, for in Him is found all knowledge (Colossians 2:2b-3; 1 John 3:20b). He is able to declare...

(Re: *Didache regarding immersion) What is the proof that the Didache's allowance of non-immersion baptism when enough water is not available (which would be never, in any place suitable for human habitation) was agreed to by any apostle, or that, at the time that the Didache was written, it...

*Luke 7:50 / *Lk. 7:50 - (Re: Means that baptism is not necessary?) See Luke 23:43 below. -- *Luke 8:2 / *Lk. 8:2 - (*Deliverance) (Re: Someone at a Baptist church who says that she hears voices: "I have been to see many doctors, and none of them seem to help very much") That brings to...

*Luke 13:3 / *Lk. 13:3 - (Re: Will unrepentant people perish? Or will they go to hell where they will experience eternal conscious suffering?) It is not either/or, but both/and. For in Luke 13:3 the original Greek word (apollumi: G0622) translated as "perish" does not require annihilation. For...

(Re: Was not Noah in the ark *7 days before the Flood?) If you think that Noah's Flood is analogous to the future Tribulation (instead of Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming), and that days are analogous to years, are you saying that the rapture of the Church will occur seven years before the...

*Luke 22:36b / *Lk. 22:36b - (Re: *Weapons) Luke 22:36b means that every Christian should obtain the sword of God's Holy Spirit, which is the Word of God (Ephesians 6:17, Hebrews 4:12). The "two swords" which are enough for all Christians (Luke 22:38) represent the two main parts of God's...

There are so many different ways to illustrate the Trinity (the Tri-Unity of God) that it should not be difficult for every Christian to get at least some realization of it. While there is no sufficient analogy to completely explain God (Isaiah 40:18), how He can be one God (John 10:30) and yet...

*John 3:16 / *Jn. 3:16 - (Re: OSAS, and a non-KJV translation) The translation "whoever believes in him shall not perish" is a mistranslation of the original Greek, in which the verb is in the subjunctive mood. This means that it is referring to a conditional action. So it should be translated...

(*Last day) (See John 5:28 above) In John 6:39-40 and John 12:48 the original Greek word (hemera: G2250) translated as the last "day" does not have to mean the last 24-hour day, but can refer figuratively to a much longer period of time (e.g. see the original Greek of 2 Corinthians 6:2; 2...

*John 10:28-29 / *Jn. 10:28 / *Jn. 10:29 - (*Hand) John 10:28-29 means that Christians will never spiritually perish so long as they remain in God's hand, and that no one outside of a Christian can ever take him or her out of God's hand. But John 10:28-29 does not mean that Christians are...

*John 16:2 / *Jn. 16:2 - Some congregations already kick some Christians out because those Christians do not conform to the theologies of those congregations. For example, a man was kicked out of a Pentecostal congregation for telling someone in the congregation that divorce and remarriage is...

*Acts 2:5-11 could include not just some Gentile proselytes to the Jewish religion (cf. Romans 2:17 & Romans 11:13), but could refer mainly to first century AD genetically-Jewish descendants of those in the southern kingdom of Judah (Jews) who had voluntarily gone to live in many nations, but...

*Acts 13 - None of the apostle Paul's teachings in this chapter, just as nothing else in the Bible, contradicts the idea of Jesus Christ reigning in a still-future, physical, Davidic, Kingdom of God on the earth, with both Jewish and Gentile Christians. (See Acts 1:6 above) -- *Acts 13:6 -...