Why did Jesus descend into hell?

AnticipateHisComing

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As today starts the season of Lent, it would be good to remember the message of the cross. Scripture says much about Jesus death, for it is the source of our redemption.

Col 1:19 For God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him, 20 and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether things on earth or things in heaven, by making peace through his blood, shed on the cross. 21 Once you were alienated from God and were enemies in your minds because of your evil behavior. 22 But now he has reconciled you by Christ’s physical body through death to present you holy in his sight, without blemish and free from accusation

1 Pet 2:24 “
He himself bore our sins” in his body on the cross, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; “by his wounds you have been healed.” 25 For “you were like sheep going astray,” but now you have returned to the Shepherd and Overseer of your souls.

Now if I were to quote every scripture that speaks of Jesus death, resurrection and ascension, this would be a very long post. These are the tenets of Christianity and are rightly professed in the creeds.

My question though is towards those that profess that Jesus descended into hell. Why did Jesus do it? What was accomplished there? Can you support your belief with scripture? I see a stark contrast between the dearth of scripture on Jesus descending into hell compared to the overwhelming amount of scripture foretelling, explaining the purpose and repeating the events of Jesus's death, resurrection and ascension.

I see no scripture in the Old Testament that foretells Jesus descending into hell, but Jesus many times said he did this and that to fulfill scripture, even to his death.

John 19:28 Later, knowing that everything had now been finished, and so that Scripture would be fulfilled, Jesus said, “I am thirsty.” 29 A jar of wine vinegar was there, so they soaked a sponge in it, put the sponge on a stalk of the hyssop plant, and lifted it to Jesus’ lips. 30 When he had received the drink, Jesus said, “It is finished.” With that, he bowed his head and gave up his spirit.
Further scripture lists the purpose of Jesus' death.
Heb 10:14 For by one sacrifice he has made perfect forever those who are being made holy.
Scripture also lists the purpose of Jesus' resurrection.
1 Peter 1:3 Praise be to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ! In his great mercy he has given us new birth into a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,
Lastly scripture speaks of Jesus ascension that he should return to his place of glory.
John 6:62 Then what if you see the Son of Man ascend to where he was before!
John 16:7 But very truly I tell you, it is for your good that I am going away. Unless I go away, the Advocate will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you.

So what do you believe is the purpose that Jesus would have descended into hell?
 

Standing Up

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Eze. 31:36
I made the nations to shake at the sound of his fall, when I cast him down to hell with them that descend into the pit: and all the trees of Eden, the choice and best of Lebanon, all that drink water, shall be comforted in the nether parts of the earth.
 
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Cappadocious

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My question though is towards those that profess that Jesus descended into hell. Why did Jesus do it? What was accomplished there?
"Descended into hell" is a mistranslation based on Latin ambiguity. It is actually "Descended into Hades." Hades = Sheol, the realm of the dead.

I see no scripture in the Old Testament that foretells Jesus descending into hell
Some Christians saw it in a Septuagint version of Isaiah:

"He descended into Hades and took Hades captive! He embittered it when it tasted His flesh! And anticipating this, Isaiah [14:9] exclaimed: 'Hades was embittered when it encountered Thee in the lower regions." -St. John Chrysostom's Paschal Homily

It's a stretch, but interpretation of the OT is a stretch in the NT as well.
 
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Wgw

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"Descended into hell" is a mistranslation based on Latin ambiguity. It is actually "Descended into Hades." Hades = Sheol, the realm of the dead.


Some Christians saw it in a Septuagint version of Isaiah:

"He descended into Hades and took Hades captive! He embittered it when it tasted His flesh! And anticipating this, Isaiah [14:9] exclaimed: 'Hades was embittered when it encountered Thee in the lower regions." -St. John Chrysostom's Paschal Homily

It's a stretch, but interpretation of the OT is a stretch in the NT as well.

The relevant parts of the Paschal Homily, in full:

St. John Chrysostom said:
Let no one weep for his iniquities, for pardon has shown forth from the grave. Let no one fear death, for the Savior’s death has set us free. He that was held prisoner of it has annihilated it. By descending into Hell, He made Hell captive. He embittered it when it tasted of His flesh. And Isaiah, foretelling this, did cry: Hell, said he, was embittered, when it encountered Thee in the lower regions. It was embittered, for it was abolished. It was embittered, for it was mocked. It was embittered, for it was slain. It was embittered, for it was overthrown. It was embittered, for it was fettered in chains. It took a body, and met God face to face. It took earth, and encountered Heaven. It took that which was seen, and fell upon the unseen.

O Death, where is your sting? O Hell, where is your victory? Christ is risen, and you are overthrown. Christ is risen, and the demons are fallen. Christ is risen, and the angels rejoice. Christ is risen, and life reigns. Christ is risen, and not one dead remains in the grave. For Christ, being risen from the dead, is become the first fruits of those who have fallen asleep. To Him be glory and dominion unto ages of ages. Amen.
 
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AnticipateHisComing

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Eze. 31:36
I made the nations to shake at the sound of his fall, when I cast him down to hell with them that descend into the pit: and all the trees of Eden, the choice and best of Lebanon, all that drink water, shall be comforted in the nether parts of the earth.
No it does not work. Exekiel 31:16 is not remotely close to being a prophecy about Jesus.
 
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AnticipateHisComing

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"Descended into hell" is a mistranslation based on Latin ambiguity. It is actually "Descended into Hades." Hades = Sheol, the realm of the dead.
Well then, shame on the translators and the church "teachers" for promoting a misunderstanding. Today, hell is commonly thought to be the place of punishment for dead people being punished.

Regardless of translation, can you propose an answer to the OP question of what did Jesus do when he descended into the "realm of the dead"?
Some Christians saw it in a Septuagint version of Isaiah:

"He descended into Hades and took Hades captive! He embittered it when it tasted His flesh! And anticipating this, Isaiah [14:9] exclaimed: 'Hades was embittered when it encountered Thee in the lower regions." -St. John Chrysostom's Paschal Homily
Isaiah 14 is a prophecy against the king of Babylon receiving just punishment, not a prophecy of Jesus.
It's a stretch, but interpretation of the OT is a stretch in the NT as well.
A major point of my OP shows your dismissal to be without merit. With regard to Jesus' death and resurrection, there is complete clarity in the OT prophecies and their fulfillment. These were quoted, explained and repeated by Jesus and the apostles. Where there is a stretch is in the doctrine that Jesus descended into hell. This is the whole point of my OP. The important tenets of Christianity are without doubt and completely unambiguous.
 
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AnticipateHisComing

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The relevant parts of the Paschal Homily, in full:
Is there an answer to my question in this sermon you quote? Do you have scripture to support your doctrine, since I know not the authority of your quoted St. John Chrysostom.
 
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Wgw

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Is there an answer to my question in this sermon you quote? Do you have scripture to support your doctrine, since I know not the authority of your quoted St. John Chrysostom.

The Paschal Homily itself refers to Scripture.
 
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Shane R

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HHIcon.jpg

That's what Jesus did when he "descended to the dead."
 
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Standing Up

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No it does not work. Exekiel 31:16 is not remotely close to being a prophecy about Jesus.
How about this?

Ps 16:10 For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.

Is. 28:16
Therefore thus saith the Lord GOD, Behold, I lay in Zion for a foundation a stone, a tried stone, a precious corner stone, a sure foundation: he that believeth shall not make haste.
17
Judgment also will I lay to the line, and righteousness to the plummet: and the hail shall sweep away the refuge of lies, and the waters shall overflow the hiding place.
18
And your covenant with death shall be disannulled, and your agreement with hell shall not stand; when the overflowing scourge shall pass through, then ye shall be trodden down by it.
19
From the time that it goeth forth it shall take you: for morning by morning shall it pass over, by day and by night: and it shall be a vexation only to understand the report.
 
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EastCoastRemnant

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Do you have a doctrine of what Jesus did there?
Well, knowing that Jesus would not contradict scripture, I would say nothing....

Ecclesiastes 9:5,6
For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not any thing, neither have they any more a reward; for the memory of them is forgotten.

Also their love, and their hatred, and their envy, is now perished; neither have they any more a portion for ever in any thing that is done under the sun.
 
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Cappadocious

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Regardless of translation, can you propose an answer to the OP question of what did Jesus do when he descended into the "realm of the dead"?
Coming out, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.

Isaiah 14 is a prophecy against the king of Babylon receiving just punishment, not a prophecy of Jesus.
Yeah but the Biblical Christian tradition is to radically re-interpret prophecies to the point of apparent distortion. That is our faith! Do not change that which was from the beginning with traditions of men alone, AHC.

With regard to Jesus' death and resurrection, there is complete clarity in the OT prophecies and their fulfillment.
Nonsense. The Scriptures themselves say that the Scriptures aren't perspicuous, see St. Peter talking about St. Paul's letters in 2 Peter 3:16. The only reason we can understand the prophecies the right way is because God's Word, Christ, exegeted them for us. The pharisees could not understand. nor the apostles until Christ exegeted.

Clarity of Scripture is a false new doctrine that was invented by men, the traditions of men alone, not from the beginning.
 
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EastCoastRemnant

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Nonsense. The Scriptures themselves say that the Scriptures aren't perspicuous, see St. Peter talking about St. Paul's letters in 2 Peter 3:16. The only reason we can understand the prophecies the right way is because God's Word, Christ, exegeted them for us. The pharisees could not understand. nor the apostles until Christ exegeted.

Clarity of Scripture is a false new doctrine that was invented by men, the traditions of men alone, not from the beginning.

And what of the Holy Spirit which will lead us into all truth... is that part of the 'clarity of scripture' heresy you speak of?
 
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Cappadocious

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You never mentioned the Holy Spirits role in all this so I thought I would ask.... the HS is my go to for understanding and truth.
Does your understanding of God deepen and grow over time by the HS?
 
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