The Necessity of Jesus' Death?

Fortran

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Hello all, I am curious if anyone could help me answer a question I have regarding salvation and Jesus' death.

From the New Testament, it seems that Jesus' death was necessary for eternal life. However, it also seems clear that some who lived before Jesus will/do have eternal life (such as Abraham). I am having some trouble reconciling the two.

If Jesus' death is necessary for salvation, than eternal life would not be possible before his death. Therefore, logically, everyone who died before Jesus payed for our sins (including David, Abraham, and so on) would have gone to hell. However, if these individuals will be in heaven (as it seems clear they will be from several Biblical passage), than Jesus death would not seem necessary to go to heaven. The OT saints could not have believed on the name of one who was yet to come, right? Basically, the question is this: if people who died before Jesus came to earth could be granted eternal life, how was His death necessary?

Any thoughts?

Thanks much,
Kelly
 

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Hello all, I am curious if anyone could help me answer a question I have regarding salvation and Jesus' death.

From the New Testament, it seems that Jesus' death was necessary for eternal life. However, it also seems clear that some who lived before Jesus will/do have eternal life (such as Abraham). I am having some trouble reconciling the two.

If Jesus' death is necessary for salvation, than eternal life would not be possible before his death. Therefore, logically, everyone who died before Jesus payed for our sins (including David, Abraham, and so on) would have gone to hell. However, if these individuals will be in heaven (as it seems clear they will be from several Biblical passage), than Jesus death would not seem necessary to go to heaven. The OT saints could not have believed on the name of one who was yet to come, right? Basically, the question is this: if people who died before Jesus came to earth could be granted eternal life, how was His death necessary?

Any thoughts?

Thanks much,
Kelly

John 8:56 Your father Abraham rejoiced that he would see my day. He saw it and was glad.”

The people of the OT looked forward to Jesus' day just as we look backward to it.
 
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grasping the after wind

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Hello all, I am curious if anyone could help me answer a question I have regarding salvation and Jesus' death.

From the New Testament, it seems that Jesus' death was necessary for eternal life. However, it also seems clear that some who lived before Jesus will/do have eternal life (such as Abraham). I am having some trouble reconciling the two.

If Jesus' death is necessary for salvation, than eternal life would not be possible before his death. Therefore, logically, everyone who died before Jesus payed for our sins (including David, Abraham, and so on) would have gone to hell. However, if these individuals will be in heaven (as it seems clear they will be from several Biblical passage), than Jesus death would not seem necessary to go to heaven. The OT saints could not have believed on the name of one who was yet to come, right? Basically, the question is this: if people who died before Jesus came to earth could be granted eternal life, how was His death necessary?

Any thoughts?

Thanks much,
Kelly

Salvation does not work like a cure for a disease where those that died of the disease prior to the discovery of the cure cannot partake of it. Time is not relevant to God. Paul says Jesus died "once for all". That would include those whose physical lives preceded the physical event of his death.
 
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brotherjerry

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Before Christ the remission of sins was done through sacrifices of animals. And when Jews died they went to paradise. The Bible says that none ascended to heaven until the Son had ascended. So even Abraham could not enter heaven until the perfect sacrifice was made in the death of Christ.

Eternal life was still ultimately their reward, but access to heaven was not until Christ.
 
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sdowney717

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Hello all, I am curious if anyone could help me answer a question I have regarding salvation and Jesus' death.

From the New Testament, it seems that Jesus' death was necessary for eternal life. However, it also seems clear that some who lived before Jesus will/do have eternal life (such as Abraham). I am having some trouble reconciling the two.

If Jesus' death is necessary for salvation, than eternal life would not be possible before his death. Therefore, logically, everyone who died before Jesus payed for our sins (including David, Abraham, and so on) would have gone to hell. However, if these individuals will be in heaven (as it seems clear they will be from several Biblical passage), than Jesus death would not seem necessary to go to heaven. The OT saints could not have believed on the name of one who was yet to come, right? Basically, the question is this: if people who died before Jesus came to earth could be granted eternal life, how was His death necessary?

Any thoughts?

Thanks much,
Kelly
They did go to hell, all who died before Christ.
Jesus tells us hell was divided into 2 parts, fiery torments and paradise. Paradise was like Eden where people received good things and those in hell bad things.
So those who God declared righteous, the righteous dead went to Paradise in the midst of Hell. Even Abraham was there, recall the story of the rich man and Lazarus who died. Hell is the place of all those who have died before the resurrection, but now only the unrighteous dead abide in hell's fiery torments.

When Jesus died, he descended into the earth where hell is. He then proclaimed Himself to Hell and lead the captivity captive taking Paradise and all those in Paradise with Him into Heaven to await the Day of Judgement at His returning and all the saints with Him. When we die today, we go to be with the Lord Jesus.

In Ephesians 4, Paul teaches Christ descended into the lower parts of the earth, (hell)

7 But to each one of us grace was given according to the measure of Christ’s gift. 8 Therefore He says:

“When He ascended on high,
He led captivity captive,
And gave gifts to men.”

9 (Now this, “He ascended”—what does it mean but that He also first descended into the lower parts of the earth? 10 He who descended is also the One who ascended far above all the heavens, that He might fill all things.)
 
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There appears to be a duplicate thread.
I said this in the other thread.

The lamb was slain before the foundation of the world (Revelation 13:8).
Meaning, the promise of a Savior was guaranteed.
God's promise of a Savior was trust worthy and true.
It was a sure thing.

Those in the Old Testament looked to a Messiah to take away their sins for good.
And those in the New Testament now look to the Messiah directly for their sin to be take away permanently.

25 "For God presented Jesus as the sacrifice for sin. People are made right with God when they believe that Jesus sacrificed his life, shedding his blood. This sacrifice shows that God was being fair when he held back and did not punish those who sinned in times past,
26 for he was looking ahead and including them in what he would do in this present time. God did this to demonstrate his righteousness, for he himself is fair and just, and he declares sinners to be right in his sight when they believe in Jesus."
(Romans 3:25-26).


....
 
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Greg J.

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God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished... (Rom. 3:25, 1984 NIV)

Salvation of those before Christ was the same as it is today in that it was through faith in God.

But those sacrifices are an annual reminder of sins, because it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins. (Heb. 10:3-4 1984 NIV)

Rom. 2:12-15 addresses this for those who did not know God's law. One might find a thing or two in the book of Hebrews, as well. ;)
 
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bling

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Hello all, I am curious if anyone could help me answer a question I have regarding salvation and Jesus' death.

From the New Testament, it seems that Jesus' death was necessary for eternal life. However, it also seems clear that some who lived before Jesus will/do have eternal life (such as Abraham). I am having some trouble reconciling the two.

If Jesus' death is necessary for salvation, than eternal life would not be possible before his death. Therefore, logically, everyone who died before Jesus payed for our sins (including David, Abraham, and so on) would have gone to hell. However, if these individuals will be in heaven (as it seems clear they will be from several Biblical passage), than Jesus death would not seem necessary to go to heaven. The OT saints could not have believed on the name of one who was yet to come, right? Basically, the question is this: if people who died before Jesus came to earth could be granted eternal life, how was His death necessary?

Any thoughts?

Thanks much,
Kelly

Kelly,


You bring up some excellent questions and they should concern you.

Some of these posts have little scripture support like:

  1. The Jews did not have intentional sins forgiven with animal atonement sacrifices. Only unintentional sins could be atoned for; read Lev. Especially Lev. 5. And Hebrews 10.

  2. The grave in the King James Version is called hell which may not be the best translation.

  3. Jason 0047 uses a very liberal selective commentary interpretation of Ro. 3:25-26 which is not found in the Greek.

  4. From the Old Testament you can learn of the Messiah, but “salvation” for the Jew back before the cross and even today refers to them of the physical nation of Israel and not the forgiving of the individual’s sins.
Greg did bring up:

God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished... (Rom. 3:25, 1984 NIV)

This verse does provide a lot of information about how sins prior to Christ going to the cross were handled.

As Greg talk about faith being needed in both the OT and NT for forgiveness Ro. 3:25 give the explanation of how this works.

First off: Paul is giving the extreme contrast between the way sins where handle prior to the cross and after the cross, so if they were actually handle the same way “by the cross” there would be no contrast, just a time factor, but Paul said (forgiven) sins prior to the cross where left “unpunished”, but that also means the forgiven “sinner” after the cross were punished.

Here is something to think about to help you address the questions below:

The cross is foolishness to the nonbeliever, so it takes a lot to show the logic and benefit.

The Crucifixion is described allegorically by Christ, Paul, Peter, John (in Revelations) and the Hebrew writer as a ransom payment.

From Romans 3: 25 Paul tells us: God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement, through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. …

Another way of saying this would be “God offers the ransom payment (Christ Crucified and the blood that flowed from Him) to those that have the faith to receive that ransom.

God is not the undeserving kidnapper nor is satan, but the unbeliever is himself is holding back the child of God from the Father, that child that is within every one of us.

Paul goes on to explain:

Ro. 3: 25 …He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished

I do not like the word “unpunished” since the same Greek word also means “undisciplined”.

So prior to the cross repentant forgiven people (saved individuals) could not be fairly and justly disciplined for the rebellious disobedience, but after the cross if we repent (come to our senses and turn to God) we can be fairly and justly disciplined and yet survive.

God and Christ would have personally preferred Christ’s blood to remain flowing through his veins, but it is I that need to have that blood outside of Christ flowing over me and in me cleansing my heart. I need to feel that blood and know it is cleansing me.

If you think about the crucifixion, you would realize at the time, Christ was on the cross God in heaven out of empathy/Love for Christ would be experience an even greater pain than Christ. We as our Love grows and our realization of what we personally caused Christ to go through will feel the death blow to our hearts (Acts 2:37). We will experience the greatest pain we could experience and still live, which is the way God is disciplining us today and for all the right reasons because Loving discipline correctly accepted results in a wondrous relationship with our parent.

Here are some questions I used in my adult Bible class:

Roman 3 starting with Ro. 3:24

1. Prior to Christ going to the cross where some people forgiven of their sins and if so who, how and why?

2. (God “pass over sins” or as in the NIV “left the sins committed beforehand unpunished”) so which sins in the past are these?

3. The OT gives lots of severe punishments for sins, so could/did “severe sins” go unpunished? Did God allow/want them to go unpunished? Why have these severe rules and punishments in the law?

4. Where the forgiven sins of those before the cross forgiven the exact same way as those after the cross?

5. If some sins where forgiven before the cross, was the cross needed to forgive sins?

6. From your own experience how hard was/is it for you to forgive the transgressions of your truly repentant child? Was/is there other action you have/had to see to that was harder to do? (What are/was it?)

7. Did you punish or discipline your children? (What would Dr. Dobson say?)

8. From your own experience with your children, if your child correctly accepted your most wise discipline and purely charitable forgiveness; was your relationship with your child better after or before the disobedience?

9. Is disciplining your child a learning maturing growing experience?

10. How could your rebellious/disobedient child stand “justified’ and “righteous” before you even today?

11. Look at the example Christ gives with the prodigal son (Luke 15: 11-32). Who is the kidnapper, what ransom was paid, who was set free, and could the son stand “justified” and/or “righteous” before the father?

12. Rev. 5: 9 “…and with your blood you purchased for God, persons from every tribe and language and people and nation.” Who did Christ pay?

13. What reason would Christ have for paying satan?


35. RSV Ro 3:24 they are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus, NIV Ro 3:24 and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. How can we be “justified” like we kept the Law without keeping the Law?

What is the relationship between being justified and being righteous?

36. “Redemption” is an interesting word, so what does it mean here?

37. If we are being paid for and set free: who is hoping us captive, what are we being held from, what is the ransom being paid, who is being paid the ransom (who is the kidnapper), what value/benefit would this ransom have to the kidnapper, and how does “faith” play into this?

38. Verse 25 might help explain “redemption”, but v.25 is not easy to understand, so what does this verse mean?

39. If Paul is conveying the idea of a “ransom” which the context might suggest than it would be in keeping with other times Paul, Peter, Christ, John and the Hebrew writers use the analogy of a ransom in describing atonement or what happened with the crucifixion, so who is being paid off?

40. “sacrifice of atonement”, “atonement cover on the ark of the covenant”, “expiation”, “mercy seat”, “propitiation” and “propitiatory sacrifice”, all refer to what God put forward with Christ, so what was God doing?

41. What are we specifically putting our “faith” in to have this atonement take place or does it take place without involving our faith and some of us just do not receive it?

42. If we do not receive it does it take place for us? Is that similar to God’s Love, forgiveness and mercy?


43. Why are we even involved?

44. Is this to help make God righteous or to show the righteousness God already has?

45. This one little phrase of Paul: “because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins” becomes a thorn in the flesh for most theories of atonement. So what does it mean?

46. What does it mean for God to “pass over sins” or as in the NIV “left the sins committed beforehand unpunished”? Does it mean accumulate them? Roll the sins forward? Forgiving the sins without doing something else that is needed and maybe can be accomplished with the cross?

47. Is God passing over and/or leaving the sins unpunished, mean all sins or just some sins and which ones did He pass over (leave unpunished)?

48. If you go back to the OT and see all the “punishments” there were for sins, does that look like God is passing over them?

49. There is a contrast in V.25 between what we have after the cross and what there was before the cross, so did Christ going to the cross solve the problem moving forward and/or did Christ crucifixion undo God’s passing over sin in the past?

50. If Christ by going to the cross eliminates God’s need to pass over sins than why did God ever pass over sins since “time” is not a factor (Christ went to the cross from the beginning of time), so what effect would Christ have on past sins God passed over?

51. V. 26 How is God shown as being right (fair/just) with Christ going to the cross? Is it fair/just to allow the innocent to be tortured, humiliated and murdered, and the guilty to go free?

52. V. 26 In what way do we become justified while those that were previously pasted over could not be justified?
 
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Kelly,


You bring up some excellent questions and they should concern you.

Some of these posts have little scripture support like:

  1. The Jews did not have intentional sins forgiven with animal atonement sacrifices. Only unintentional sins could be atoned for; read Lev. Especially Lev. 5. And Hebrews 10.

  2. The grave in the King James Version is called hell which may not be the best translation.

  3. Jason 0047 uses a very liberal selective commentary interpretation of Ro. 3:25-26 which is not found in the Greek.

  4. From the Old Testament you can learn of the Messiah, but “salvation” for the Jew back before the cross and even today refers to them of the physical nation of Israel and not the forgiving of the individual’s sins.
Greg did bring up:

God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished... (Rom. 3:25, 1984 NIV)

This verse does provide a lot of information about how sins prior to Christ going to the cross were handled.

As Greg talk about faith being needed in both the OT and NT for forgiveness Ro. 3:25 give the explanation of how this works.

First off: Paul is giving the extreme contrast between the way sins where handle prior to the cross and after the cross, so if they were actually handle the same way “by the cross” there would be no contrast, just a time factor, but Paul said (forgiven) sins prior to the cross where left “unpunished”, but that also means the forgiven “sinner” after the cross were punished.

Here is something to think about to help you address the questions below:

The cross is foolishness to the nonbeliever, so it takes a lot to show the logic and benefit.

The Crucifixion is described allegorically by Christ, Paul, Peter, John (in Revelations) and the Hebrew writer as a ransom payment.

From Romans 3: 25 Paul tells us: God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement, through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. …

Another way of saying this would be “God offers the ransom payment (Christ Crucified and the blood that flowed from Him) to those that have the faith to receive that ransom.

God is not the undeserving kidnapper nor is satan, but the unbeliever is himself is holding back the child of God from the Father, that child that is within every one of us.

Paul goes on to explain:

Ro. 3: 25 …He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished

I do not like the word “unpunished” since the same Greek word also means “undisciplined”.

So prior to the cross repentant forgiven people (saved individuals) could not be fairly and justly disciplined for the rebellious disobedience, but after the cross if we repent (come to our senses and turn to God) we can be fairly and justly disciplined and yet survive.

God and Christ would have personally preferred Christ’s blood to remain flowing through his veins, but it is I that need to have that blood outside of Christ flowing over me and in me cleansing my heart. I need to feel that blood and know it is cleansing me.

If you think about the crucifixion, you would realize at the time, Christ was on the cross God in heaven out of empathy/Love for Christ would be experience an even greater pain than Christ. We as our Love grows and our realization of what we personally caused Christ to go through will feel the death blow to our hearts (Acts 2:37). We will experience the greatest pain we could experience and still live, which is the way God is disciplining us today and for all the right reasons because Loving discipline correctly accepted results in a wondrous relationship with our parent.

Here are some questions I used in my adult Bible class:

Roman 3 starting with Ro. 3:24

1. Prior to Christ going to the cross where some people forgiven of their sins and if so who, how and why?

2. (God “pass over sins” or as in the NIV “left the sins committed beforehand unpunished”) so which sins in the past are these?

3. The OT gives lots of severe punishments for sins, so could/did “severe sins” go unpunished? Did God allow/want them to go unpunished? Why have these severe rules and punishments in the law?

4. Where the forgiven sins of those before the cross forgiven the exact same way as those after the cross?

5. If some sins where forgiven before the cross, was the cross needed to forgive sins?

6. From your own experience how hard was/is it for you to forgive the transgressions of your truly repentant child? Was/is there other action you have/had to see to that was harder to do? (What are/was it?)

7. Did you punish or discipline your children? (What would Dr. Dobson say?)

8. From your own experience with your children, if your child correctly accepted your most wise discipline and purely charitable forgiveness; was your relationship with your child better after or before the disobedience?

9. Is disciplining your child a learning maturing growing experience?

10. How could your rebellious/disobedient child stand “justified’ and “righteous” before you even today?

11. Look at the example Christ gives with the prodigal son (Luke 15: 11-32). Who is the kidnapper, what ransom was paid, who was set free, and could the son stand “justified” and/or “righteous” before the father?

12. Rev. 5: 9 “…and with your blood you purchased for God, persons from every tribe and language and people and nation.” Who did Christ pay?

13. What reason would Christ have for paying satan?


35. RSV Ro 3:24 they are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus, NIV Ro 3:24 and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. How can we be “justified” like we kept the Law without keeping the Law?

What is the relationship between being justified and being righteous?

36. “Redemption” is an interesting word, so what does it mean here?

37. If we are being paid for and set free: who is hoping us captive, what are we being held from, what is the ransom being paid, who is being paid the ransom (who is the kidnapper), what value/benefit would this ransom have to the kidnapper, and how does “faith” play into this?

38. Verse 25 might help explain “redemption”, but v.25 is not easy to understand, so what does this verse mean?

39. If Paul is conveying the idea of a “ransom” which the context might suggest than it would be in keeping with other times Paul, Peter, Christ, John and the Hebrew writers use the analogy of a ransom in describing atonement or what happened with the crucifixion, so who is being paid off?

40. “sacrifice of atonement”, “atonement cover on the ark of the covenant”, “expiation”, “mercy seat”, “propitiation” and “propitiatory sacrifice”, all refer to what God put forward with Christ, so what was God doing?

41. What are we specifically putting our “faith” in to have this atonement take place or does it take place without involving our faith and some of us just do not receive it?

42. If we do not receive it does it take place for us? Is that similar to God’s Love, forgiveness and mercy?


43. Why are we even involved?

44. Is this to help make God righteous or to show the righteousness God already has?

45. This one little phrase of Paul: “because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins” becomes a thorn in the flesh for most theories of atonement. So what does it mean?

46. What does it mean for God to “pass over sins” or as in the NIV “left the sins committed beforehand unpunished”? Does it mean accumulate them? Roll the sins forward? Forgiving the sins without doing something else that is needed and maybe can be accomplished with the cross?

47. Is God passing over and/or leaving the sins unpunished, mean all sins or just some sins and which ones did He pass over (leave unpunished)?

48. If you go back to the OT and see all the “punishments” there were for sins, does that look like God is passing over them?

49. There is a contrast in V.25 between what we have after the cross and what there was before the cross, so did Christ going to the cross solve the problem moving forward and/or did Christ crucifixion undo God’s passing over sin in the past?

50. If Christ by going to the cross eliminates God’s need to pass over sins than why did God ever pass over sins since “time” is not a factor (Christ went to the cross from the beginning of time), so what effect would Christ have on past sins God passed over?

51. V. 26 How is God shown as being right (fair/just) with Christ going to the cross? Is it fair/just to allow the innocent to be tortured, humiliated and murdered, and the guilty to go free?

52. V. 26 In what way do we become justified while those that were previously pasted over could not be justified?

Please tell me you are not saying that Jesus did not save the Old Testament saint. For Hebrews 10:4 says,

"For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins."
(Hebrews 10:4).

God's Word says in Romans 3:25 NLT,

"This sacrifice shows that God was being fair when he held back and did not punish those who sinned in times past,"​

This is not talking about how God could not punish sins (discipline) them in the physical world. For what we sow here in the physical world still has physical world repercussions (i.e. the reaping portion of sowing). This is talking about how God would not punish them for sins in the spirit world that they confess and forsake in regards to their salvation when they died. Meaning, God was not going to send any Old Testament saint to be tormented in hell until Jesus arrived.

For there is no other name under Heaven whereby men can be saved.

For the Old Testament saint was saved by obeying God and by looking to the Messiah to one day take away their sins permanently.
The New Testament is saved by obeying God and by looking to the Messiah to take away their sins today.


....
 
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bling

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Please tell me you are not saying that Jesus did not save the Old Testament saint. For Hebrews 10:4 says,

"For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins."
(Hebrews 10:4).

In the Old Testament: God forgave people and people either; humbly accept that pure gift of charity or refused to seek and/or accept God’s charity. This is the choice the prodigal son had when he came to his senses.


God's Word says in Romans 3:25 NLT,

"This sacrifice shows that God was being fair when he held back and did not punish those who sinned in times past,"


The verse actually says: God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished... (Rom. 3:25, 1984 NIV)

The New Living Translation is more of a commentary interpretation of scripture then a translation of the scripture, so man’s opinions are part of the translation and it is not just a pure translation from the Greek to the English.

Are you suggesting God is lacking either the power or the will to forgive people without having Christ go to the cross?

This is not talking about how God could not punish sins (discipline) them in the physical world. For what we sow here in the physical world still has physical world repercussions (i.e. the reaping portion of sowing). This is talking about how God would not punish them for sins in the spirit world that they confess and forsake in regards to their salvation when they died. Meaning, God was not going to send any Old Testament saint to be tormented in hell until Jesus arrived.

You are taking Paul’s “sowing and reaping” out of context, since it says: Gal. 6: 7 Do not be deceived: God cannot be mocked. A man reaps what he sows. 8 Whoever sows to please their flesh, from the flesh will reap destruction; whoever sows to please the Spirit, from the Spirit will reap eternal life. 9 Let us not become weary in doing good, for at the proper time we will reap a harvest if we do not give up.

If you “give up” the sowing of good seed and go back to sowing bad seed you will not reap (heaven), so in the same manner if you quit sowing bad seeds and start sowing good seeds you will not reap destruction (hell). Do not minimize the harvest of sinning here on earth to some hardships here on earth. Did Paul (the chief of sinners), reap at any time the the harvest of the seeds of sin he sowed?

For there is no other name under Heaven whereby men can be saved.

Yes, but that was said in the context of after the cross.

For the Old Testament saint was saved by obeying God and by looking to the Messiah to one day take away their sins permanently.
....

The prophets tell us: Ezk. 18: 30 “Therefore, you Israelites, I will judge each of you according to your own ways, declares the Sovereign Lord. Repent! Turn away from all your offenses; then sin will not be your downfall. 31 Rid yourselves of all the offenses you have committed, and get a new heart and a new spirit. Why will you die, people of Israel? 32 For I take no pleasure in the death of anyone, declares the Sovereign Lord. Repent and live!

Isaiah 30:15 This is what the Sovereign Lord, the Holy One of Israel, says: “In repentance and rest is your salvation, in quietness and trust is your strength, but you would have none of it

Psalm 130:

Out of the depths I cry to you, Lord;2 Lord, hear my voice. Let your ears be attentive

to my cry for mercy. 3 If you, Lord, kept a record of sins,

Lord, who could stand? 4 But with you there is forgiveness,

so that we can, with reverence, serve you.

Psalm 103: 2Praise the Lord, my soul and forget not all his benefits—3 who forgives all your sins

and heals all your diseases, 4 who redeems your life from the pit

and crowns you with love and compassion,

Micah 7:18 Who is a God like you, who pardons sin and forgives the transgression of the remnant of his inheritance? You do not stay angry forever but delight to show mercy.

The Old Testament does not talk about a “later time” when forgiven sinner will have his sins taken away, but talks about God forgiving them at the time of their repentance, so in the Old Testament times God “past over” forgiven sins and did not punish the sinner, while after the cross a person could be punished (disciplined).
 
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faroukfarouk

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Hello all, I am curious if anyone could help me answer a question I have regarding salvation and Jesus' death.

From the New Testament, it seems that Jesus' death was necessary for eternal life. However, it also seems clear that some who lived before Jesus will/do have eternal life (such as Abraham). I am having some trouble reconciling the two.

If Jesus' death is necessary for salvation, than eternal life would not be possible before his death. Therefore, logically, everyone who died before Jesus payed for our sins (including David, Abraham, and so on) would have gone to hell. However, if these individuals will be in heaven (as it seems clear they will be from several Biblical passage), than Jesus death would not seem necessary to go to heaven. The OT saints could not have believed on the name of one who was yet to come, right? Basically, the question is this: if people who died before Jesus came to earth could be granted eternal life, how was His death necessary?

Any thoughts?

Thanks much,
Kelly
The Epistle to the Hebrews contains answers to your questions; the Old Testament sacrifices looked forward to the one, finish sacrifice for sin which the Lord Jesus perfectly accomplished at the Cross (see especially chapters 9 and 10 of the Epistle to the Hebrews).
 
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In the Old Testament: God forgave people and people either; humbly accept that pure gift of charity or refused to seek and/or accept God’s charity. This is the choice the prodigal son had when he came to his senses.




The verse actually says: God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished... (Rom. 3:25, 1984 NIV)

The New Living Translation is more of a commentary interpretation of scripture then a translation of the scripture, so man’s opinions are part of the translation and it is not just a pure translation from the Greek to the English.

Are you suggesting God is lacking either the power or the will to forgive people without having Christ go to the cross?



You are taking Paul’s “sowing and reaping” out of context, since it says: Gal. 6: 7 Do not be deceived: God cannot be mocked. A man reaps what he sows. 8 Whoever sows to please their flesh, from the flesh will reap destruction; whoever sows to please the Spirit, from the Spirit will reap eternal life. 9 Let us not become weary in doing good, for at the proper time we will reap a harvest if we do not give up.

If you “give up” the sowing of good seed and go back to sowing bad seed you will not reap (heaven), so in the same manner if you quit sowing bad seeds and start sowing good seeds you will not reap destruction (hell). Do not minimize the harvest of sinning here on earth to some hardships here on earth. Did Paul (the chief of sinners), reap at any time the the harvest of the seeds of sin he sowed?



Yes, but that was said in the context of after the cross.



The prophets tell us: Ezk. 18: 30 “Therefore, you Israelites, I will judge each of you according to your own ways, declares the Sovereign Lord. Repent! Turn away from all your offenses; then sin will not be your downfall. 31 Rid yourselves of all the offenses you have committed, and get a new heart and a new spirit. Why will you die, people of Israel? 32 For I take no pleasure in the death of anyone, declares the Sovereign Lord. Repent and live!

Isaiah 30:15 This is what the Sovereign Lord, the Holy One of Israel, says: “In repentance and rest is your salvation, in quietness and trust is your strength, but you would have none of it

Psalm 130:

Out of the depths I cry to you, Lord;2 Lord, hear my voice. Let your ears be attentive

to my cry for mercy. 3 If you, Lord, kept a record of sins,

Lord, who could stand? 4 But with you there is forgiveness,

so that we can, with reverence, serve you.

Psalm 103: 2Praise the Lord, my soul and forget not all his benefits—3 who forgives all your sins

and heals all your diseases, 4 who redeems your life from the pit

and crowns you with love and compassion,

Micah 7:18 Who is a God like you, who pardons sin and forgives the transgression of the remnant of his inheritance? You do not stay angry forever but delight to show mercy.

The Old Testament does not talk about a “later time” when forgiven sinner will have his sins taken away, but talks about God forgiving them at the time of their repentance, so in the Old Testament times God “past over” forgiven sins and did not punish the sinner, while after the cross a person could be punished (disciplined).

"...and without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins" (Hebrews 9:22 ESV).

Meaning, God cannot just forgive sins without a sacrifice.


...
 
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EmSw

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"...and without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins" (Hebrews 9:22 ESV).

Meaning, God cannot just forgive sins without a sacrifice....

Actually, He can forgive sins without a sacrifice.

Luke 5
20 And when he saw their faith, he said unto him, Man, thy sins are forgiven thee.
21 And the scribes and the Pharisees began to reason, saying, Who is this which speaketh blasphemies? Who can forgive sins, but God alone?
22 But when Jesus perceived their thoughts, he answering said unto them, What reason ye in your hearts?
23 Whether is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Rise up and walk?
24 But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power upon earth to forgive sins, (he said unto the sick of the palsy,) I say unto thee, Arise, and take up thy couch, and go into thine house.
 
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Actually, He can forgive sins without a sacrifice.

Luke 5
20 And when he saw their faith, he said unto him, Man, thy sins are forgiven thee.
21 And the scribes and the Pharisees began to reason, saying, Who is this which speaketh blasphemies? Who can forgive sins, but God alone?
22 But when Jesus perceived their thoughts, he answering said unto them, What reason ye in your hearts?
23 Whether is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Rise up and walk?
24 But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power upon earth to forgive sins, (he said unto the sick of the palsy,) I say unto thee, Arise, and take up thy couch, and go into thine house.

No. Jesus is God and He was actually absolving sin this instance here as per the promise of His future sacrifice. Jesus said what He did to them as a means of deflection. Just as he said that we are gods to the Pharisees. That does not mean we are literally gods in a divine sense. Jesus was referring to how we are kings as in relation to the word "gods." But ultimately, both of these statements were made as a means of deflection to those who did not believe. For Jesus told many people not to tell others about certain miracles that He did. For Jesus was not going around and announcing that He was God Almighty in the flesh (Even though He was).


...
 
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EmSw

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No. Jesus is God and He was actually absolving sin this instance here as per the promise of His future sacrifice. Jesus said what He did to them as a means of deflection. Just as he said that we are gods to the Pharisees. That does not mean we are literally gods in a divine sense. Jesus was referring to how we are kings as in relation to the word "gods." But ultimately, both of these statements were made as a means of deflection to those who did not believe. For Jesus told many people not to tell others about certain miracles that He did. For Jesus was not going around and announcing that He was God Almighty in the flesh (Even though He was)....

Jason, it says nothing of a future sacrifice. If Jesus said He forgave the sins of the man with palsy, then He forgave them. There is no deflection involved. Jesus had power to forgive sins without any sacrifice.
 
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Jason, it says nothing of a future sacrifice. If Jesus said He forgave the sins of the man with palsy, then He forgave them. There is no deflection involved. Jesus had power to forgive sins without any sacrifice.

No. It was Christ's sacrifice and his resurreciton that makes the forgiveness of sin possible.

1 Corinthians 15:17 says,
"And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; you are yet in your sins."


...
 
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EmSw

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No. It was Christ's sacrifice and his resurreciton that makes the forgiveness of sin possible.

1 Corinthians 15:17 says,
"And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; you are yet in your sins."...

God does not desire sacrifice.

Psalm 40:6
Sacrifice and offering You did not desire; my ears You have opened. Burnt offering and sin offering You did not require.

Psalm 51:16
For thou desirest not sacrifice; else would I give it: thou delightest not in burnt offering.

Hosea 6:6
For I desired mercy, and not sacrifice; and the knowledge of God more than burnt offerings.

Matthew 9:13
But go ye and learn what that meaneth, I will have mercy, and not sacrifice: for I am not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.

Did you notice what David said, "Burnt offering and sin offering You did not require". Jesus said to go and learn what this means, "I will have mercy, and not sacrifice".

Have you learned what the following words of Jesus means? "I will have mercy and not sacrifice".
 
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God does not desire sacrifice.

Psalm 40:6
Sacrifice and offering You did not desire; my ears You have opened. Burnt offering and sin offering You did not require.

Psalm 51:16
For thou desirest not sacrifice; else would I give it: thou delightest not in burnt offering.

Hosea 6:6
For I desired mercy, and not sacrifice; and the knowledge of God more than burnt offerings.

Matthew 9:13
But go ye and learn what that meaneth, I will have mercy, and not sacrifice: for I am not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.

Did you notice what David said, "Burnt offering and sin offering You did not require". Jesus said to go and learn what this means, "I will have mercy, and not sacrifice".

Have you learned what the following words of Jesus means? "I will have mercy and not sacrifice".

This is context to the Old Covenant animal sacrifices. For Hebrews 10:4 says the blood of goats and bulls never took away sin. Meaning, the OT animal sacrifices only temporarily covered sin. They did not permanently take away sin for good. They had to keep revisiting the same old sins year after year. But with Christ's sacrifice it actually did take away sin.

"Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand" (Isaiah 53:10).

"In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, in accordance with the riches of God's grace"
(Ephesians 1:7).

"But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far away have been brought near by the blood of Christ"
(Ephesians 2:13).

"God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God"
(2 Corinthians 5:21).

"so Christ was sacrificed once to take away the sins of many;"
(Hebrews 9:28).

18 "Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, as silver and gold, from your vain conversation received by tradition from your fathers;
19 But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:"
(1 Peter 1:18-19).

"He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world"
(1 John 2:2).

"and from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, the firstborn from the dead, and the ruler of the kings of the earth. To him who loves us and has freed us from our sins by his blood"
(Revelation 1:5).


...
 
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EmSw

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This is context to the Old Covenant animal sacrifices. For Hebrews 10:4 says the blood of goats and bulls never took away sin. Meaning, the OT animal sacrifices only temporarily covered sin. They did not permanently take away sin for good. They had to keep revisiting the same old sins year after year. But with Christ's sacrifice it actually did take away sin.

"Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand" (Isaiah 53:10).

"In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, in accordance with the riches of God's grace"
(Ephesians 1:7).

"But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far away have been brought near by the blood of Christ"
(Ephesians 2:13).

"God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God"
(2 Corinthians 5:21).

"so Christ was sacrificed once to take away the sins of many;"
(Hebrews 9:28).

18 "Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, as silver and gold, from your vain conversation received by tradition from your fathers;
19 But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:"
(1 Peter 1:18-19).

"He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world"
(1 John 2:2).

"and from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, the firstborn from the dead, and the ruler of the kings of the earth. To him who loves us and has freed us from our sins by his blood"
(Revelation 1:5)....

It wasn't the sacrifice which gave eternal life, it was the eating of His flesh and drinking of His blood.

John 6
54 Whoever eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day.
55 For My flesh is food indeed, and My blood is drink indeed.
56 He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood abides in Me, and I in him.


You still need to learn what Jesus meant by 'I will have mercy and not sacrifice'.
 
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