The gift of Tongues

Hillsage

One 4 Him & Him 4 all
Site Supporter
Jun 12, 2009
5,244
1,767
The land of OZ
✟322,350.00
Country
United States
Faith
Charismatic
Marital Status
Married
unknown but actual languages.
My question in post 98 was specific, I thought. Your answer is not IMO.

question 1 was "What tongues ceased then Albion. Was it the tongues/languages of men, as Imagican has incessantly argued to be the only 'tongues' in scripture?"
YES or NO?

Question 2 "Or was it some other tongue? If so, then what tongue are YOU referring to?"

IOW Does "unknown" to you, mean unknown 'to Man' and yet 'known' to God like our spirit's tongue? Or do you have another "unknown" application?
 
Upvote 0

swordsman1

Well-Known Member
May 3, 2015
3,940
1,064
✟251,947.00
Faith
Christian
JUD 1:20 But you, beloved, build yourselves up on your most holy faith; pray in the Holy Spirit;
If fundamental translators (too "ignorant/ungifted" to think there was anything they didn't already have) wouldn't have Capitalized here in this verse, guess whose spirit would have been holy because it was 'born anew'???? But even with their bad translating 'building yourself up' is BIBLE.

A better translation; CLT 20 Now you, beloved, building yourselves up in your most holy faith, praying in holy spirit,

This argument is full of holes. Firstly there is no mention of tongues, or spiritual gifts in general, in Jude 20 or the surrounding context. Praying in the Holy Spirit (as it appears in every translation) certainly isn't tongues. Jude is not even saying we build our faith by praying in the Spirit - they are separate items in a list along with 2 other items. The main way we build our faith is not through praying but by the reading and preaching of God's word - "Faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God". In addition Jude is speaking in the plural - "building yourselves up". He says we build one another up collectively, not individually.

And I do, I build myself up that I am empowered to give to others 'that' which I have received FROM GOD in prayer. Since MY SPIRIT knows how to really pray for my needs (for self and others) unlike those who are ignorant and ungifted in that area, and therefore left up to their MENTAL acuity as to what their/others SPIRITUAL needs just might really be. Surprising 'things' have certainly popped into my head while praying in tongues for someone. Not things one even begins to 'think' about.

No, Peter says it is the gift itself that must only be used for edifying others, not a by-product of the gift. How is speaking unintelligible words edifying to others?

And the very end of his rebuking is the exhortation to WHAT?
1CO 14:39 So, my brethren, earnestly desire to prophesy, and do not forbid speaking in tongues;

Yes, do not forbid the proper use of the gift, which is speaking a language that others can understand (either because they know the language themselves, or it is translated). Not the misuse of the gift which the Corinthians were guilty of - speaking unintelligibly.


So, what you believe is; when I was in jail ministry and asked the Mexican to close in prayer I should have told him to quit speaking Spanish? :doh: No, I said amen, but I was always curious what the heck he prayed.

But your Mexican friend wasn't speaking in the supernatural gift of tongues was he, which is what Paul is referring to in 1 Cor 14.

You still haven't proved that modern day tongues is the language of angels as you assert. The only verse you have offered is 1 Cor 13:1. But you haven't yet refuted the clear evidence from the context of that verse that Paul was speaking hypothetically. See my post #18.
 
  • Like
Reactions: Shane658
Upvote 0

Butch5

Newbie
Site Supporter
Apr 7, 2012
8,932
768
62
Homer Georgia
Visit site
✟308,557.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
'That' would certainly be a big stumbling block to understanding what I believe and have shared.


I've heard others who believe this same doctrine.


I believe man is a single, physical, being that has been given the breath of life from God, Gen 2:7.

We should discuss 2:7 then, because I think it has been understood incorrectly, for scripture defines us as triune in the following verses IMO.

1TH 5:23 And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray Godyourwholespiritandsoulandbodybe preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

HEB 4:12 For the word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword,piercing even to the dividingasunder ofsoulandspirit, and of thejoints and marrow (body parts), and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart.

What do you think of this scriptural separation of man?


According to Gen 2:7 God created the man from the dust of the earth. Moses recorded that God then breathed into the man the breath or spirit of life and man became a living soul. From this I deduce that a man is a living soul that consist of a body and the breath or spirit of life. Thus a man consists of two parts, the man (body) and the breath or spirit of life. So, the passages you posted here simply denote the whole man or being.


In the Scriptures we find that the word soul is used two different ways. It is used concretely as a living being as we find in Gen.2. It is also used abstractly as life and is translated as such in Scripture. These passages could also refer to one's entire being including their life.


I'm not saying'spirit is man'either. 'Man' is the sum total of the three in my view...I think.
C:\Users\BUTCH~1.BUT\AppData\Local\Temp\msohtmlclip1\01\clip_image001.gif


OK, I don't think that lines up with Gen 2:7, however, do you believe that there is a part that lives on after death. If so, how is it that the man is the total of the three parts?



So you're saying, when you see capitalization of the wordsHolyand orSpirit, they don't designate any difference between the'spirit of man'and the 'Spirit of God' to you. If I'm correct then; when Jesus said "Father into thy hands I commendmyspirit" you think He should have said "ourspirit"or maybe"mySpirit"?


I think Jesus simply meant His life. Into thy hands I commend my life. It is the breath/spirit of life that gives us life. When that breath/spirit leaves the body the person dies and their life ends. Thus when Jesus' breath/spirit left Him He died. According to the Scriptures the breath/spirit of life is in every living being and when it departs that being dies.



I do understand where you are coming then, with that belief system. But I think that when Paul said "this earthly tent/bodythat I/spiritlive in" I believe he was identifying with that part of him which was made in the "image" of God which was 'spirit' since according to scripture "God is spirit". And 'that' verse was even written long after Jesus was resurrected, I might add.


I'm not sure what passage you believe Paul said that in. I don't think he did. I don't believe that it is explained in Scripture what it means to be made in the image of God. I haven't seen that defined.


But Paul wasn't dealing with Israel, he was dealing with a church in Greece full of Gentile believers manifesting supernatural tongues within their congregations. And the implication for speaking to Israel may very well have been what happened when The Holy Spirit of God was manifesting the 'tongues of men' to those men, through uneducated fishermen. But they in no way were praying in the tongues of their spirit....from my point of view. So the OT prophesy may have been manifested, but that doesn't negate and individuals spirit tongue IMO. Hope that helped me answer your questions concerning my POV which is different than yours Bro.

As I understand it there is only one way speak in tongues, that is physically. I believe Paul's words are misunderstood by many. There were Jews scattered all over even in Corinth. So, it would also be a sign there. However, Paul states that tongues was a sign to the unbeliever, particularly the Jewish leadership. I don't really see how some think that there is a prayer language in tongues. What point is there in praying in another language that one doesn't know? How does one even know what they are praying if they are praying in a language they don't understand? It seems to me that Paul is being misunderstood as there is no reason to pray in a language one doesn't understand.
 
Upvote 0

SteveCaruso

Translator
May 17, 2010
812
555
✟54,511.00
Faith
Anglican
Marital Status
Married
This is a two way street then I guess. What exactly was 'bottom line' purpose of your first post. What does 'your experience' prove in regard to 'the gift of tongues' topic, of discussion?

Out of roughly 100 samples of speaking in tongues (93 to be precise) where the speaker was told "by the Holy Spirit" that the language was Aramaic there were zero in Aramaic, sans one that was a deception. These individuals sought me out due to my experience with Aramaic languages.

These are verifiable data points for readers to take into consideration and interpret them as they will.

I looked at your profile and don't even see a 'testimony' as to you even having a basic born again spiritual experience.

My addition to this conversation had to do with verifiable instances of alleged Aramaic tongues. It is not part of my tradition to boast about born again experiences, such as in a public profile as if to wear them as a badge of pride, or as "proof" of my spiritual credentials. :)

{A}ll those who speak in tongues today {are} false based upon your experience?

To date, I have personally witnessed zero "genuine" tongues as they are portrayed in the Bible, and I have been exposed to a lot of modern examples from a spectrum of Charismatic and Pentecostal traditions (many, many more than the requests to verify Aramaic tongues), all of whom claimed they were genuine.

If they do exist, they are opaque.

Your brief mentioning this 'issue' was totally 'off topic' as well as opaque. So my question is, are you saying that every case of 'automatic hand writing' you looked at proves that 'the gift of tongues' is a false experience in the church today?

Automatic handwriting is a similar phenomena (most of the examples I've seen have some from people saying that they were "praying in the Spirit" when it happened) and has a similar "track record" in the context of my direct personal experience with Aramaic claims.
 
  • Like
Reactions: Shane658
Upvote 0

Wgw

Pray For Brussels!
May 24, 2015
4,304
2,074
✟15,107.00
Faith
Eastern Orthodox
Marital Status
Single
Politics
UK-Conservative
My addition to this conversation had to do with verifiable instances of alleged Aramaic tongues. It is not part of my tradition to boast about born again experiences, such as in a public profile as if to wear them as a badge of pride, or as "proof" of my spiritual credentials. :)

It is also not a part of Syriac Orthodox tradition. Although lamentably one might find this in a handful of Coptic Orthodox parishes in extra-diocesan areas, due to the well-documented problems our sister church is having with liturgical abuses in parishes not under the immediate supervision of a local diocesan bishop.
 
  • Like
Reactions: SteveCaruso
Upvote 0

Shane658

Active Member
Nov 16, 2015
70
2
31
✟15,210.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
Hillsage
The Charismatic/Pentecostal movement is part of the end time apostasy in the churches, it destroys the word of God and creates its own false doctrine and religion, it also finds a common ground to unite false religions.They all take things such as healing,tongues,prophecies and more,then distort the truth of what the bible says about it. It creates a false Christianity and conditions the people to accept false signs . Which we see that in Mathew, Revelation and more books of the bible that this will be used to deceive people. For false Christs and false prophets will arise and will show great signs and wonders, so as to mislead, if possible, even the elect. Matthew 24:24
If the pope began speaking in gibberish like they do, many of those people involved in the movement would take it as the sign of the Holy Spirit and possibly follow what the pope says.All he has to do is is claim to speak in this false tongues that is going on and there you have it, Pentecostals/Charismatics,Catholics,Charismatic Catholics,Mormon,Voodoo priest uniting. Now you have a worldwide false religion forming.Now some of the Pentecostals teach that being Baptized in Holy the Spirit produces the ability to speak in gibberish and that those that don't do it don't have the Holy Spirit in them. They can possibly turn against us that are exposing this false movement because they have become so delusional.
 
Upvote 0

Hillsage

One 4 Him & Him 4 all
Site Supporter
Jun 12, 2009
5,244
1,767
The land of OZ
✟322,350.00
Country
United States
Faith
Charismatic
Marital Status
Married
I've heard others who believe this same doctrine.
Yes, it is a popular doctrine.

According to Gen 2:7 God created the man from the dust of the earth. Moses recorded that God then breathed into the man the breath or spirit of life and man became a living soul. From this I deduce that a man is a living soul that consist of a body and the breath or spirit of life. Thus a man consists of two parts, the man (body) and the breath or spirit of life. So, the passages you posted here simply denote the whole man or being.
I think the problem comes from deducing more than 2:7 is saying. God formed a body out of dust. That body was complete with all the tissues and organs of a dead body, including brain, lungs. When God breathed 'his spirit into man' I don't think it was O2 he blew into him, I think it was spirit. That spirit elicited life and with that life man drew his first breath of 'air/O2'. At that point his brain/soul started functioning also. The reason Adam's soul subsequently "BECAME a living soul" is because Adam was obedient to God from that point on. His soul became a 'dying soul' the minute he ate of the tree of good and evil. But his soul did not instantly die, nor did his physical breath expire at the instant he ate. No more than he became a spiritually "living soul" the instant he drew a functioning breath physically. The terminology "shall surely die" was used many times without an immediate death. Indeed the Young's literal translation elucidates the Hebraism of these terms and the progressiveness of a dying soul like this;

Genesis 2:17 and of the tree of knowledge of good and evil, thou dost not eat of it, for in the day of thine eating of it - dying thou dost die.'

IOW the " thou shalt surely die" means your soul will receive a 'death sentence' that ends in unavoidable death.

JAM 1:15 Then desire when it has conceived gives birth to sin; and sin when it is full-grown brings forth death.

When Jesus yielded his spirit he died, then he breathed his last breath of air.

Luke 23:46 Then Jesus, crying with a loud voice, said, "Father, into thy hands I commit my spirit!" And having said this he breathed his last.

In the Scriptures we find that the word soul is used two different ways. It is used concretely as a living being as we find in Gen.2. It is also used abstractly as life and is translated as such in Scripture. These passages could also refer to one's entire being including their life.
I know that this is a very 'debatable' topic for that reason.

OK, I don't think that lines up with Gen 2:7, however, do you believe that there is a part that lives on after death. If so, how is it that the man is the total of the three parts?
Yes I do. The spirit can never die, that's the equivalent of shooting Casper the ghost IMO. All spirits are eternal, and when one dies their "spirit returns to God."

ECC 12:7 Then shall the dust (body) return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.

I believe the soul enters soul sleep even as Jesus spoke of Lazarus 'sleeping' after his spirit departed his body and he had died physically. But when Jesus raised Lazarus from the dead, he didn't resurrect his soul he awakened it, after his spirit returned ressurecting his body, just like when Jesus raised the maiden.

LUK 8:55 And her spirit came again, and she arose straightway:

I think Jesus simply meant His life. Into thy hands I commend my life. It is the breath/spirit of life that gives us life. When that breath/spirit leaves the body the person dies and their life ends. Thus when Jesus' breath/spirit left Him He died. According to the Scriptures the breath/spirit of life is in every living being and when it departs that being dies.
The air in his lungs went to heaven?

I'm not sure what passage you believe Paul said that in. I don't think he did. I don't believe that it is explained in Scripture what it means to be made in the image of God. I haven't seen that defined.

2CO 5:1 For we know that if the earthly tent we live in is destroyed,
2CO 5:2 Here indeed we groan, and long to put on our heavenly dwelling, (glorified body)
3 so that by putting it on we may not be found naked.
4 For while we are still in this tent, we sigh with anxiety; not that we would be unclothed, but that we would be further clothed, so that what is mortal may be swallowed up by life.


I am a spirit I have a soul and I live in a body. :)

I don't really see how some think that there is a prayer language in tongues.
1CO 14:14 For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays but my mind is unfruitful.

What point is there in praying in another language that one doesn't know?

1CO 14:4 He who speaks in a tongue edifies himself, One must understand the context of this "speaks in a tongue" realizing it is prayer tongues one is speaking.

How does one even know what they are praying if they are praying in a language they don't understand?
Your soul doesn't but your spirit does. Your soul/mind can know, if you then pray, in English, for an interpretation to your soul/mind.

1CO 14:13 Wherefore let him that speaketh (spirit praying) in an unknown tongue pray (in English) that he may interpret.
One does this so they can not only be edified in spirit but now also in the soul with an English interpretation which will make their mind fruitful.

Shorter posts PLEASE, smaller bites are easier to chew.
 
Upvote 0

Albion

Facilitator
Dec 8, 2004
111,138
33,258
✟583,842.00
Country
United States
Faith
Anglican
Marital Status
Married
My question in post 98 was specific, I thought. Your answer is not IMO.

question 1 was "What tongues ceased then Albion. Was it the tongues/languages of men, as Imagican has incessantly argued to be the only 'tongues' in scripture?"
YES or NO?

Question 2 "Or was it some other tongue? If so, then what tongue are YOU referring to?"

IOW Does "unknown" to you, mean unknown 'to Man' and yet 'known' to God like our spirit's tongue? Or do you have another "unknown" application?

Actual human languages used and understood by people other than the speaker.
 
Upvote 0

Butch5

Newbie
Site Supporter
Apr 7, 2012
8,932
768
62
Homer Georgia
Visit site
✟308,557.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
I think the problem comes from deducing more than 2:7 is saying. God formed a body out of dust. That body was complete with all the tissues and organs of a dead body, including brain, lungs. When God breathed 'his spirit into man' I don't think it was O2 he blew into him, I think it was spirit. That spirit elicited life and with that life man drew his first breath of 'air/O2'. At that point his brain/soul started functioning also. The reason Adam's soul subsequently "BECAME a living soul" is because Adam was obedient to God from that point on.His soul became a 'dying soul'the minute he ate of the tree of good and evil. But his soul did not instantly die, nor did his physical breath expire at the instant he ate. No more than he became a spiritually "living soul" the instant he drew a functioning breath physically. The terminology "shall surely die"was used many times without an immediate death. Indeed the Young's literal translation elucidates the Hebraism of these terms and the progressiveness of adying soullike this;

Genesis 2:17and of the tree of knowledge of good and evil, thou dost not eat of it, for in the day of thine eating of it -dying thou dost die.'

IOW the "thou shalt surely die" means your soul will receive a 'death sentence' that ends in unavoidable death.

JAM 1:15 Then desire when it has conceived gives birth to sin; andsinwhen it is full-grownbrings forth death.

When Jesus yielded his spirit he died, then he breathed his last breath of air.

Luke 23:46Then Jesus, crying with a loud voice, said, "Father, into thy handsI commit my spirit!" Andhaving said thishe breathed his last.


I haven't deduced more than the passage is saying. I have submitted that God formed them man from the dust of the earth, breathed into him the breath/spirit of life and man became a living soul. That's what the passage says. I haven't suggested that God breathed air into Adam but rather something from Himself. Whether it is literal of a word picture it suggests that something came out of God and went into the man and the man became a living soul. We read in the Scriptures that "God is breath". He put the breath of life into man and man became a living soul. It seems then that the breath or spirit that is in man is not man but rather something of God. That goes back to my point about the phrase "my spirit" referring to possession and not identity.


I have to disagree with you about Adam. We read in the Scriptures that God told Adam that in the day he ate of the tree of knowledge he would surely die. It is both an ancient Jewish and early Christian understanding that Adam did in fact die the day he ate from the tree of knowledge. They understood that the "day" was a prophetic day. Davids said in the Psalms.


4 For a thousand years in thy sight are but as yesterday when it is past, and as a watch in the night. (Ps. 90:4 KJV)


Peter also alludes to this when asked about the delay in the Lord's return.


I know that this is a very 'debatable' topic for that reason.


The topic seems pretty clear to me when all of the evidence is considered.


Yes I do. The spirit can never die, that's the equivalent of shooting Casper the ghost IMO. All spirits are eternal, and when one dies their "spirit returns to God."

ECC 12:7 Then shall thedust (body)returnto the earthas it was: and thespiritshallreturn unto Godwho gave it.

I believe the soul enters soul sleep even as Jesus spoke of Lazarus 'sleeping' after his spirit departed his body and he had died physically.But when Jesus raised Lazarus from the dead,he didn't resurrect his soul he awakened it, after his spirit returned ressurecting his body, just like when Jesus raised the maiden.

LUK 8:55 Andherspirit came again, and she arosestraightway:


However Jesus plainly stated that Lazarus was dead. However, according to Gen 2:7, a soul consists of a body and the breath of life. If that breath returns to the Lord, how does a soul continue to exist?

I disagree also that spirits are eternal. Paul said that the Father alone has immortality.


The air in his lungs went to heaven?


No, His life. The breath of life that gave Him life.


2CO 5:1 For we know that ifthe earthly tent we live inis destroyed,
2CO 5:2Here indeed we groan, and long to put on our heavenly dwelling, (glorified body)
3 so that by putting it on we may not be foundnaked.
4 Forwhile we are still in this tent, we sigh with anxiety; not that we would be unclothed, but that we would be further clothed,so that what is mortal may be swallowed up by life.

I am aspiritI have asouland I live in abody.
C:\Users\BUTCH~1.BUT\AppData\Local\Temp\msohtmlclip1\01\clip_image001.gif


This passage addresses two different states of being. One is corruptible and the other incorruptible. The earthly tent is corruptible the heavenly isn't. Actually, in this passage Paul states the opposite of what most Christians claim of this passage. Notice that Paul doesn't want to be found naked. He equates that to without a body. Notice that he doesn't want to be unclothed but rather overclothed so that mortality may be swallowed up by life. IOW, mortality may be swallowed up by immortality.


You said, "I am a spirit." I would submit that that is not taught in Scripture, but is rather an idea from Greek philosophy. If you are a spirit, then the soul and the body aren't you.


1CO 14:14 For ifI pray in a tongue, my spirit praysbut my mind is unfruitful.


Not sure how this proves it. I speak English and pray in English, that doesn't mean that English is a special prayer language. If Paul prays in a tongue, say one spoken in North Africa that doesn't make it a special prayer language.


1CO 14:4 He whospeaks in a tongueedifies himself,One must understand the context of this"speaks in a tongue"realizing it is prayer tongues one isspeaking.


I think you're misunderstanding the passage. Remember in this letter Paul is chewing out the Corinthians for the very reason of self edification. He's rebuking them for their pride. He said they were "puffed up". Earlier in the letter he chastised them for boasting about who their teacher was. Some said they were of Cephas etc. This letter is a rebuke of the Corinthians for edifying themselves one over another.


Your soul doesn't but your spirit does. Your soul/mind can know, if you then pray, in English, for an interpretation to your soul/mind


1CO 14:13 Wherefore let him thatspeaketh (spirit praying) in an unknown tonguepray (in English) that he may interpret.
One does this so they can not only beedified in spiritbut now also in the soul with an English interpretation which will make theirmind fruitful.

Shorter posts PLEASE, smaller bites are easier to chew. .

Earlier you said, "I am a spirit". If that is the case then you should know what you pray in a tongue. You said, "Your soul doesn't." The soul is the whole being, or one's life. The way you're using soul doesn't seem to align with either of these meanings.

It seems to me that you're equivocating with the word spirit. Can you define what you mean by the word spirit? In the Scriptures the Hebrew words Neshemah and Ruach and the Greek word pnuema mean wind or breath. There is a figurative use of these words a spirit.

I agree that the posts can get unwieldy so if you only want to address part of the post I understand.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Hillsage

One 4 Him & Him 4 all
Site Supporter
Jun 12, 2009
5,244
1,767
The land of OZ
✟322,350.00
Country
United States
Faith
Charismatic
Marital Status
Married
I haven't deduced more than the passage is saying. I have submitted that God formed them man from the dust of the earth, breathed into him the breath/spirit of life and man became a living soul. That's what the passage says. I haven't suggested that God breathed air into Adam but rather something from Himself. Whether it is literal of a word picture it suggests that something came out of God and went into the man and the man became a living soul. We read in the Scriptures that "God is breath". He put the breath of life into man and man became a living soul. It seems then that the breath or spirit that is in man is not man but rather something of God. That goes back to my point about the phrase "my spirit" referring to possession and not identity.
You make good points. We could talk at length on them...too much length unfortunately. And yet I hate to not answer your whole post. Oh well here goes.

As you said "God is breath" so when he said "Let US make man in OUR image" what does that mean to you? Do you believe God had a body made out of dust from before 'earth' was created? Was GOD a cosmic 'mind/'living soul' as Eastern religions believe? Or did He have a soul with which He was 'pleased in Jesus'?

MAT 12:18 Behold my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul (Not I, but MY) is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him,

Does "will put" in this verse mean Jesus never had a spirit in him yet?

I personally think that "God is spirit"....Father/Word/Holy Spirit (Let US), were all spirit. That's why I say I too am 'a spirit'. Did my spirit come from God's, as you said? Yes, I believe our spirit is "of my Spirit" meaning 'from God's Spirit'. Just like ALL creation came from GOD'S Spirit.

It seems then that the breath or spirit that is in man is not man but rather something of God. That goes back to my point about the phrase "my spirit" referring to possession and not identity.
But Paul didn't say 'God's spirit in me' he said "my spirit".

I have to disagree with you about Adam. We read in the Scriptures that God told Adam that in the day he ate of the tree of knowledge he would surely die. It is both an ancient Jewish and early Christian understanding that Adam did in fact die the day he ate from the tree of knowledge. They understood that the "day" was a prophetic day. Davids said in the Psalms.
We are in TOTAL agreement here...kind of. Genesis tells us what 'prophetic day' it was speaking of in in 2:5. And it was 'the day' before 'it rained'. IOW 'the day/age before the flood'...very much like 100 year ' day/age of the locomotive'....Only 'this ante-deluvian day' was a 1000 years from creation. And no man ever lived longer than Methuselah, who made it 960 in 'that day/age'. Peter concurs with "a day is like a thousand years unto the Lord".

The topic seems pretty clear to me when all of the evidence is considered.
It seems clear to me too. So why don't WE agree. ^_^

However Jesus plainly stated that Lazarus was dead. However, according to Gen 2:7, a soul consists of a body and the breath of life.
'Plainly' to them' because they were thinking 'carnally' and He spoke over their heads speaking of 'asleep'??? And a 'living soul' has all three just like 1Thess 3:21 and Heb 4:12 declared total man to be IMO.
If that breath returns to the Lord, how does a soul continue to exist?
Just like 'the body' exists...'dead' until the resurrection??? What does a 'dead soul' look like when 'it sleeps'???? I don't know.

I disagree also that spirits are eternal. Paul said that the Father alone has immortality.
eternal/immortal...apples/oranges.

2TI 1:10 and now has manifested through the appearing of our Savior Christ Jesus, who abolished death and brought life AND immortality to light through the gospel.
Romans 2:7 to those who by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, he will give eternal life;


Do you distinguish a difference between "immortality" and "life/eternal life" as scripture does? If not, then your theology might be 'lacking'. My theology accounts for both but ties in with a 'spirit/soul/body' understanding.

No, His life. The breath of life that gave Him life.
Which was 'a spirit' and it was Jesus' spirit, and not God's. That's why He said "into THY hands I commit my spirit".


I'm stopping Butch. But I do enjoy this dialogue. Don't eat too much tomorrow.
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

Hillsage

One 4 Him & Him 4 all
Site Supporter
Jun 12, 2009
5,244
1,767
The land of OZ
✟322,350.00
Country
United States
Faith
Charismatic
Marital Status
Married
This passage addresses two different states of being. One is corruptible and the other incorruptible. The earthly tent is corruptible the heavenly isn't. Actually, in this passage Paul states the opposite of what most Christians claim of this passage. Notice that Paul doesn't want to be found naked. He equates that to without a body. Notice that he doesn't want to be unclothed but rather overclothed so that mortality may be swallowed up by life. IOW, mortality may be swallowed up by immortality.
Corruptible/incorruptible a 'good character' it means "perishable/imperishable" IOW returning to dust. And I agree, this whole passage is dealing with our physical bodies/"earthly tent"/"tabernacle"/dwelling place for Sspirits. And Paul is saying, he doesn't want to be a spirit without a body to live in. That's what demons are, is disembodied spirits which long to manifest in this realm God has given man. So the only way a "spirit of fear/judgment/uncleanness/infirmity/divination" can manifest is through a willing human being who has submitted their soul/mind,will,emotion to 'it'.


You said, "I am a spirit." I would submit that that is not taught in Scripture, but is rather an idea from Greek philosophy. If you are a spirit, then the soul and the body aren't you.
I know nothing of Greek philosophy concerning this POV. But I have substantiated that POV with scripture IMO.

1CO 14:14 For ifI pray in a tongue, my spirit prays but my mind is unfruitful.
Not sure how this proves it. I speak English and pray in English, that doesn't mean that English is a special prayer language. If Paul prays in a tongue, say one spoken in North Africa that doesn't make it a special prayer language.
I never said it did. Of course he could speak/pray in any language of man to pray. But only if he'd first learned that language. And in those languages his mind would not be 'unfruitful' because he would understand what he was saying even if you didn't because you didn't speak 'foreign languages of men'. But the 'prayer tongue of your spirit' is NOT a known language to any man according to scripture. It's a language spoken "unto God".

1CO 14:2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for NO MAN understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.


I think you're misunderstanding the passage. Remember in this letter Paul is chewing out the Corinthians for the very reason of self edification. He's rebuking them for their pride. He said they were "puffed up". Earlier in the letter he chastised them for boasting about who their teacher was. Some said they were of Cephas etc. This letter is a rebuke of the Corinthians for edifying themselves one over another.
Your 'bolded' by me comment is 'the whole truth' of all you said IMO. I've given scripture proving we need to be able to go to God in prayer to build ourselves up when we're down.

Earlier you said, "I am a spirit". If that is the case then you should know what you pray in a tongue.
Hmm. That is a point I've never pondered. So don't have an answer other than to say scripture isn't saying my spirit understands either. I do know that we are told to pray for an interpretation of our prayer tongue. Why would that be, if indeed it was a 'language of man' that we'd already learned?

1CO 14:13 Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret.
14 For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful.

I do this, but admittely not very frequently. And as I've prayed in English after a time in tongues, something may suddenly come to mind which I believe was of God by the Spirit of revelation. Maybe a 'word of knowledge' or 'word of wisdom' even...not sure sometimes.

You said, "Your soul doesn't." The soul is the whole being, or one's life.
Your opinion which you haven't proven to me scripturally. I've given 2 'triune being' scriptures you don't agree with but haven't refuted, I don''t believe.

It seems to me that you're equivocating with the word spirit. Can you define what you mean by the word spirit? In the Scriptures the Hebrew words Neshemah and Ruach and the Greek word pnuema mean wind or breath. There is a figurative use of these words a spirit.
Spirit is nebulous as is wind. And the spirit/soul is also, even as scripture states. As is the "separation of spirit and soul" by the sword of the spirit. I suppose my best definition is this; The spirit represents the 'animating life' force of a body and the soul represents the 'motivating life' force.
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

swordsman1

Well-Known Member
May 3, 2015
3,940
1,064
✟251,947.00
Faith
Christian
But the 'prayer tongue of your spirit' is NOT a known language to any man according to scripture. It's a language spoken "unto God".

1CO 14:2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for NO MAN understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.

No, scripture is quite clear - tongues is communicating in known foreign languages that the speaker hadn't previously learned. See Acts 2:5-11. There is no other description of the gift anywhere in scripture.

1 Cor 14:2 makes no mention of prayer. Not even in the immediate context. It is simply 'speaking' in tongues. And of course the tongues in the Corinthian church were not speaking to men - nobody there knew the language spoken and nobody was there to translate it. Only God, who knows all languages, knew what they were saying. They were misusing their gift and throughout this chapter Paul repeatedly rebukes them for speaking languages nobody understands, because spiritual gifts are only meant for the benefit of others (1 Peter 4:10, 1 Corinthians 12:7).

When Paul does mention praying in tongues in v13-17 it is clearly public prayer that ought to be understood by others - "how can someone else, who is now put in the position of an inquirer, say “Amen” to your thanksgiving, since they do not know what you are saying? You are giving thanks well enough, but no one else is edified." Paul says such prayers should always be translated (v13). Remember the entire context of 1 Cor 14 is 'in the church' where others are present, where others sing and speak and pray, where people take it in turns to speak, where unbelievers may visit, etc.
 
Upvote 0

Job8

Senior Member
Dec 1, 2014
4,634
1,801
✟21,583.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
It was known languages in the Bible. I don't believe they're active today.
This is consistent with reality. If indeed the ability to speak a foreign language supernaturally had continued for over 2,000 years, not a single missionary would need to learn any foreign language and spend months or years becoming proficient. They could pray for this supernatural ability and they would speak supernaturally, since one can ask for gifts according to Scripture.

Furthermore, this gift would not be limited to Pentecostal or Charismatic churches but would be present in each and every assembly of regenerated Christians across the board. There would be no *Tongues Movement* and it would be one of the spiritual gifts along with the others. Paul said *Are there tongues -- they shall CEASE* (1 Cor 13:8,9). And they have ceased as pertains to the Bible tongues.
 
Upvote 0

Albion

Facilitator
Dec 8, 2004
111,138
33,258
✟583,842.00
Country
United States
Faith
Anglican
Marital Status
Married
Random babblings or repeating some syllable again and again is not a language of any sort, not a language of men or of angels or of God. It MAY BE an emotional release of sorts and it may be evidence of the yearning of the speaker to communicate with God, but it's not a language and not what the Bible refers to as a "tongue."

As for the reference in 1 Cor 14.2 to the effect that "nobody" understands the speaker...this isn't a guarantee that there is not a single person anywhere on Earth who speaks that language but, rather, what is obvious, that it's "unknown" to those within earshot of the speaker.

If you were in an American church, for example, and started testifying in English, who would think that you were speaking in a "unknown tongue?" Well, no one. It has to be an unfamiliar language.
 
  • Like
Reactions: SteveCaruso
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Aelred of Rievaulx

Well-Known Member
Nov 11, 2015
1,398
606
✟12,231.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Private
Do you think that it's actual speaking in tongues like some churches practice or is it speaking languages you don't know or know very little of or even just being given the right words to say?
I think that the modern practice is using ones mouth to make sound devoid of meaning.

I also think that what St Paul was referring to was the gift of being able to speak in other languages, I can speak in English and Romanian, for example.
 
Upvote 0

Albion

Facilitator
Dec 8, 2004
111,138
33,258
✟583,842.00
Country
United States
Faith
Anglican
Marital Status
Married
I think that the modern practice is using ones mouth to make sound devoid of meaning.

I also think that what St Paul was referring to was the gift of being able to speak in other languages, I can speak in English and Romanian, for example.
Apparently it's more than being able to speak more than one language, though. On Pentecost, Peter was heard by people of many different linguistic backgrounds to be speaking in their own language. We consider that a miracle, that he could speak in one language and yet people would hear him in dozens of different ones simultaneously.
 
  • Like
Reactions: SteveCaruso
Upvote 0

Aelred of Rievaulx

Well-Known Member
Nov 11, 2015
1,398
606
✟12,231.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Private
Apparently it's more than being able to speak more than one language, though. On Pentecost, Peter was heard by people of many different linguistic backgrounds to be speaking in their own language. We consider that a miracle, that he could speak in one language and yet people would hear him in dozens of different ones simultaneously.
Yes, the Acts of the Apostles uses the term Xenoglossia to describe Pentacost. The idea there is that the early Christians were able to speak other human languages, undoing Babel, undoing misunderstanding.

Ironically in charismatic churches the opposite is happening. People begin babbling incoherently and considering it good...
 
  • Like
Reactions: SteveCaruso
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Biblicist

Full Gospel believer
Mar 27, 2011
7,023
992
Melbourne, Australia
✟51,094.00
Country
Australia
Faith
Pentecostal
Marital Status
Married
Apparently it's more than being able to speak more than one language, though. On Pentecost, Peter was heard by people of many different linguistic backgrounds to be speaking in their own language. We consider that a miracle, that he could speak in one language and yet people would hear him in dozens of different ones simultaneously.
After the crowd heard the 120 praising God in their native languages, it is recognised that when Peter provided the Churches first evangelistic message that he did so in Aramaic, which was also the common language of the Jews in Judea.
 
Upvote 0