Peter and the Keys, Catholicism and the Pope(2)

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Montalban

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We shall await his answer then.

Perhaps he will ask you why, if you accept one part of what Rome accepted then, you'd don't go the whole way? Or perhaps he'll want to contextualise what you quote - which would be good.

Either way, it will move us on to the developing understanding - which would be most useful.

peace,

Anglian

I've already stated my reasons for raising this. But here I'll do it again.

He gave a sordid history of how the Eastern church finnally apologised for this canon, and withdrew it, etc.

If you had read your history on this event you'd know that from the very beginning the Legates rejected it, arguing that it had been slipped in after the sessions were over.

My point therefore being that if there was this sorry tale of an illegal canon, why'd his church end up accepting it?

You address this point by saying that the church's idea of itself would have changed. If this were so, then they're going backwards, by raising a church to have similar rights and honours... a church that was not then in communion with it.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Dear LLOJ,

My own Church recognises Chalcedon as a local Council, ditto everything after it. It rejects the Chalcedonian definition - which is why I don't have a horse in this race.
Thks Anglian. My horse is only running on 2 legs here :D

aFu_WeirdHorse.gif
 
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Montalban

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My own Church recognises Chalcedon as a local Council, ditto everything after it. It rejects the Chalcedonian definition - which is why I don't have a horse in this race.

You have a stance. You've been arguing it. It's like when you said earlier you weren't interpreting the Tome.
 
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Anglian

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Dear Montalban,

Yes, Peter was first bishop of Antioch; Antioch has never made anything of the Petrine claims; all this is true. Quite what it has to do with our discussion here, you will no doubt reveal.

As my last post shows, Canon 28 was accepted in the contect of an attempt at reunion in which the Orthodox representative also made concessions. It shows nothing of what was 'understood' in the 450s.

If you'd be kind enough to repeat your source for the other quotation, I'd be happy to see what the context is.

No one said that anything was 'in flux'; a developing understanding of the Trinity before the Cappadocian Fathers does not mean that the Church was 'in flux' over it before then.

peace,

Anglian
 
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Anglian

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You have a stance. You've been arguing it. It's like when you said earlier you weren't interpreting the Tome.
Since it is not essential to my Church's ecclesiology to explain away the Fathers saying Peter speaks through Leo, I am free to examine the evidence without EO or RCC preconceptions.

This means, for example, that I don't say that Lyons recongised Canon 28 without explaining that it was part of an attempted reunion. Neither do I claim that it shows anything about what was 'understood' in the 450s.

peace,

Anglian
 
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Montalban

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Since you are the one claiming it did, isn't it odd that I should have to prove something you think matters?
All that matters is we both agree the Council was called against his wishes :D
Yes, and from the pov of my Church, what is odd about that?
You have Leo both desiring this council and knowing it was going to be a disaster!
You do know what my Church is, don't you?
Given you think that they need the Pope's 'assent' it's hard to tell.
What I have suggested is that taking evidence, selectively, from 1274 and then saying it proves anything about what was 'understood' in the 450s is bad historical method. If you accept what Rome accepted in 1274, then don't do it selectively - accept all it accepted then. Simply cherry-picking the bits which suit your argument is good polemic - and bad history.
I'm not cherry-picking.
A point was made by NewMan about this canon. I showed that the Roman church ended up accepting it in direct response to his long post about all the machinations going on about it. That was his and my discussion.

As to our discussion, if you want to look 'at the timeframe' of the 400's then you'd have addressed the fact that the Canon was not endorsed by the Pope. Something YOU HAVE NOT ADDRESSED. Instead you've tried to champion a cause for NewMan by accusing me of not addressing him and I had. I addressed him to his points. I address you over another and you don't reply to it still!:p
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Dear Montalban,

Yes, Peter was first bishop of Antioch; Antioch has never made anything of the Petrine claims; all this is true. Quite what it has to do with our discussion here, you will no doubt reveal.

As my last post shows, Canon 28 was accepted in the contect of an attempt at reunion in which the Orthodox representative also made concessions. It shows nothing of what was 'understood' in the 450s.

If you'd be kind enough to repeat your source for the other quotation, I'd be happy to see what the context is.

No one said that anything was 'in flux'; a developing understanding of the Trinity before the Cappadocian Fathers does not mean that the Church was 'in flux' over it before then.

peace,

Anglian
Seems like you are saying Canon 28 has an significance importance.......I tried to look for info on it and came up with this......:wave:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pentarchy_(Christianity)

......Pope Leo I, whose delegates were absent when this resolution was passed and who protested against it, recognized the council as ecumenical and confirmed its doctrinal decrees, but rejected canon 28 on the ground that it contravened the sixth canon of Nicaea and infringed the rights of Alexandria and Antioch.[16]HYPERLINK \l "cite_note-Idea-8"[9]

However, by that time Constantinople, the permanent residence of the emperor, had in reality enormous influence, and had it not been for the opposition of Rome, its bishop could easily have been given first place among all the bishops.[9]
 
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Montalban

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Since it is not essential to my Church's ecclesiology to explain away the Fathers saying Peter speaks through Leo, I am free to examine the evidence without EO or RCC preconceptions.
You must be the only non-biased person here ;)
How lucky. Only you don’t interpret the Tome as well!
This means, for example, that I don't say that Lyons recongised (sic) Canon 28 without explaining that it was part of an attempted reunion.
It doesn’t matter why. If it were sullied as NewMan suggested, then you further condemn the Western Church. Again, I’d hate to have you as a defence.
I note too, that with you I don’t look at this centuries on, but you won’t deal with the fact it was not approved of then by the Pope.
Neither do I claim that it shows anything about what was 'understood' in the 450s.
What was 'understood' then is what I posted, it wasn't accepted by the pope
 
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NewMan99

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Anglian (and Montalban),

I can't beat what NewMan said on that; I still don't see where you've dealt with it.

No - he hasn't dealt with it in the least. He merely sidestepped it by pointing to something Catholic scholar Davis said about the Second Council of Lyons supposedly accepting Canon 28 in 1274...although no contextual information is given on that -so there is likely more to the story than this. But in pointing to this example from 1274, Montalban is tacitly admitting more than he should. For this same scholar, on page 194, also says regarding canon 28:

"Only in the sixth century was the twenty-eighth canon admitted into the official canonical collections of the Greek East and in 1274 at the Second Council of Lyons accepted by the Catholic West."

So what Davis is referring to was that canon 28 wasn't accepted "officially" by the Greek East until "the sixth century" - in other words, at the Synod of Trullo. This is rather specious reasoning on Davis' part because, as I have already noted in detail, Trullo was also rejected entirely (at first) and only later were CERTAIN canons accepted (but never canon 28), in spite of numerous attempts by the Byzantines to get it ratified. So if it was "officially accepted" by the Greek East in the sixth century, why, then, did they ask...to the point of KISSING THE POPE'S FEET...for its ratification (which it never got)??? This "official acceptance" of canon 28 by the Greeks came much later - after the schism when the EOs no longer cared if the Pope ratified it or not. And if we want to point to Lyons in 1274 as a watershed moment where both sides supposedly agreed on canon 28...it must also be pointed out that both sides ALSO agreed to the filioque in this same Council. So if Montalban wishes to posit that this Council is binding, then doesn't this presuppose that the schism is healed and canon 28 (assuming this is accurately reported by Davis) and the filioque are both universally accepted? Why would canon 28 even be relevent if Constantinople is in schism from Rome?

My point is that if Montalban wishes to point to 1274, then he is illustrating that it was never "accepted" officially in a universal context (and it IS a canon that sets up jurisdictions for the universal Chuch to accept - is it not???) until two centuries AFTER the Great Schism...at the earliest - and this is assuming there is not more to the story than what this scholar states.

So the question becomes this...at what time in history where Constantinople and Rome were in communion with each other (pre 1055) did canon 28 ever become "official" for the Church entire? Never.

Few scholars would regard a TV website as authoritative; I am sure you'd not use its resources for supporting papal claims.

Of course it is not authoritative, although the vast majority of stuff at EWTN is pretty reliable. In this case, I would either disagree with whomever wrote that the Pope didn't want the Council (for plenty of other scholars have a different opinion) or I would point out that in his brief summary he did not choose to get into details about the matter (I lean toward the latter). For the EWTN writer spoke of Leo's initial wish to handle the matter without a Council (that much is probably true...why have a council if there is the possibility of other options? I don't blame the Pope for looking for an easier solution at first), but when it became obvious the problem would not be effectively taken care of without a Council, it was the Pope who went to the Emperor asking for one. And the Emperor agreed, only he did not want it in Italy. This is the problem when we take a couple of sentences meant to provide a summary and extrapolate out of that that the Pope did not want to have a Council. There is more to the story and we need to consider the fuller explanations offered by other scholars.

Now Montalban has raised a number of issues related to Chrysostom and other things, which I plan to address properly when I have the time to do so. But I have to admit to a bit of trepidation here because of the large investment of time to properly address some of these issues, and I have not sensed a real reciprocal willingness to deal with the evidence I have already provided on other matters. But I will proceed forward in good faith assuming that we are just in the "feeling out" process for understanding each other's way of approaching things. Maybe I misunderstand where he is coming from. So I will proceed, but cautiously.

God's Peace,

NewMan
 
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Montalban

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Seems like you are saying Canon 28 has an significance importance


It simply affirmed what had already risen, that the "New Rome" Constantinople should be equated with the "Old Rome".

Anglian claims that the Council had to get approval from the Pope, but this was a canon he didn't approve.
 
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Anglian

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All that matters is we both agree the Council was called against his wishes :D
We both agree that Leo did not want this council at that time in that place; only you think this matters; why you do is a secret known only to you and the Almighty.

You have Leo both desiring this council and knowing it was going to be a disaster!
Nuance: Leo didn't want this council then; nuance; retrospect shows this would have been the wiser course. I attributed no gift of prophecy to Leo.

Given you think that they need the Pope's 'assent' it's hard to tell.
I thought I'd been clear that the decisions needed ratifying by the Pope; if I wasn't, I am now.

I'm not cherry-picking.
A point was made by NewMan about this canon. I showed that the Roman church ended up accepting it in direct response to his long post about all the machinations going on about it. That was his and my discussion.
Cherry-picking, for me, means using this to make a point without telling us it was in the context of an attempt at reuinion in which the Orthodox were also supposed to be making concessions.

As to our discussion, if you want to look 'at the timeframe' of the 400's then you'd have addressed the fact that the Canon was not endorsed by the Pope. Something YOU HAVE NOT ADDRESSED. Instead you've tried to champion a cause for NewMan by accusing me of not addressing him and I had. I addressed him to his points. I address you over another and you don't reply to it still!:p
My last post, as with this one, provides a context you mysteriously failed to mention.

Do I presume you think the Orthodox should have stood by the concessions made by their representatives at Lyons? Why does a political concession made in 1274 mean anything about the understanding of these things in the 450s?

peace,

Anglian
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Well all of you here are talking way over my head, as my familiarity with early church history is practically nil except for what I read here on CF.
So I will humbly bow out again and focus on other topics for awhile......God bless :wave:
 
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Anglian

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Well all of you here are talking way over my head, as my familiarity with early church history is practically nil except for what I read here on CF.
So I will humbly bow out again and focus on other topics for awhile......God bless :wave:
Always good to have you here, bro'

Now I'm gonna do it - what's with the Avatar? (we can use it as a popcorn break)

peace,

Anglian
 
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Montalban

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Anglian (and Montalban),



No - he hasn't dealt with it in the least. He merely sidestepped it by pointing to something Catholic scholar Davis said about the Second Council of Lyons supposedly accepting Canon 28 in 1274...although no contextual information is given on that -so there is likely more to the story than this. But in pointing to this example from 1274, Montalban is tacitly admitting more than he should. For this same scholar, on page 194, also says regarding canon 28:

"Only in the sixth century was the twenty-eighth canon admitted into the official canonical collections of the Greek East and in 1274 at the Second Council of Lyons accepted by the Catholic West."

So what Davis is referring to was that canon 28 wasn't accepted "officially" by the Greek East until "the sixth century" - in other words, at the Synod of Trullo.
I didn't know you knew more than Davis!
The Catholic Encyclopedia differs with you regarding Trullo
CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA: Council in Trullo

I don't 'posit' the Council as binding on the East, I only argued that the Catholic church accepted it then, and they did.

Thank you for another long, evidence-free post.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Always good to have you here, bro'

Now I'm gonna do it - what's with the Avatar? (we can use it as a popcorn break)

peace,

Anglian
Ok since you ASKED!
I was debating Jews on an Orthodox Jewish forum some years back and that is the avatar they used when someone was banned from the forum [mainly Christians :D.]

There were so many of those on there, it looked like a commercial for Ban roll-on!.
 
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Anglian

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Dear Montalban.

So, by 1274 the Pope was summoning Councils; the Orthodox don't seem to have found that an obstacle to talks about unity. That tells us something about 1274. If an RCC tried to use this to say that the Pope's right to do this was 'understood' in 451, your arguments on this subject would have merit; since no one has, you've erected an argument you can have with yourself and win.

In its fourth session it was stated that the Greeks had accepted the Roman claims; in the final session, they accepted the filioque. The Roman quid pro quo was to accept Canon 28.

This tells us much about the ecclesiastical politics of 1274, and nothing about those of 451.

That old pesky chronology and contextualisation; tiresome for the polemicist - jolly useful for the historian.:)

peace,

Anglian
 
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Montalban

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We both agree that Leo did not want this council at that time in that place; only you think this matters; why you do is a secret known only to you and the Almighty.
I believe that the last several hours of arguing that they didn’t need papal approval should have told you this
Stating that you both want to argue that they needed his approval, and then that they don’t is another point I’ve raised
I thought I'd been clear that the decisions needed ratifying by the Pope; if I wasn't, I am now.
And this canon wasn’t. So they didn’t need his approval on where/when to have a Council, but they did in the end, even though they didn’t, because this canon wasn’t approved.
Cherry-picking, for me, means using this to make a point without telling us it was in the context of an attempt at reuinion (sic) in which the Orthodox were also supposed to be making concessions.
It doesn’t matter. At best this sneaky canon was accepted by the Catholic church in 1274 in order to win over the East – according to you this is why they did it. So the Catholic church accepted a canon for political reasons. Again you condemn that which you try to defend
My last post, as with this one, provides a context you mysteriously failed to mention.
Your last posts provide a ‘context’ for the church in the 1200s which you say had a different idea of the itself, but when I draw you back to looking at the church in the time-frame you are arguing about you don’t want to look at it, but the context of the church in the 1200s???
Do I presume you think the Orthodox should have stood by the concessions made by their representatives at Lyons?
No. In fact it shows that we were not as willing to ‘deal’ as the West was on matters – we stuck to our faith.
Why does a political concession made in 1274 mean anything about the understanding of these things in the 450s?
Not only have I dealt with this, you WON’T EVEN ADDRESS the understanding from the 400s. Post after post you skip about this.

Funny that. At least others reading here can see how readily you avoid discussion of points
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Ok since you ASKED!
I was debating Jews on an Orthodox Jewish forum some years back and that is the avatar they used when someone was banned from the forum [mainly Christians :D.]

There were so many of those on there, it looked like a commercial for Ban roll-on!.
Oh, I eventually got one of those myself, but I think I lasted twice as long on that Forum than did most of the others that got it ^_^
 
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Montalban

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Dear Montalban.
Now you want to discuss outside your time-frame because you think you’re on a winner. I note you’ve shied away from discussing the fact that the pope in the 400s didn’t approve that canon.
So, by 1274 the Pope was summoning Councils; the Orthodox don't seem to have found that an obstacle to talks about unity. That tells us something about 1274. If an RCC tried to use this to say that the Pope's right to do this was 'understood' in 451, your arguments on this subject would have merit; since no one has, you've erected an argument you can have with yourself and win.
And the Orthodox accepted this Council, hey? The whole Orthodox world had representatives there? I suppose because the Mongols had sent representatives there, they too acknowledge the Papacy
In its fourth session it was stated that the Greeks had accepted the Roman claims; in the final session, they accepted the filioque. The Roman quid pro quo was to accept Canon 28.
So what? They accepted a canon they’d argued tried to be slipped in. At a time that the Roman pontiff accepted no one as his equal, he wanted to accept “New Rome” as an equal.
This tells us much about the ecclesiastical politics of 1274, and nothing about those of 451.
You avoiding the Pope not approving this canon in the 400s tells us nothing about the 400s
That old pesky chronology and contextualisation; tiresome for the polemicist - jolly useful for the historian.
Sarcasm would only help, if you had a point to make. You sense of history means making assertions about Papal approval for this council then never discussing the fact he didn't assent on this one canon... and then suddenly jumping out of your time-frame in a flawed attempt at point-scoring.
 
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