[PERMANENTLY CLOSED] Is it possible for Christians to be perfectly sinless in this life?

[NCTPremill]

There are some churches or denominations (typically from Wesleyan or Holiness backgrounds) that teach that it is possible for Christians to be perfectly sinless in this life. However, this false doctrine clearly goes against the Scriptures. For example, the Apostle John writes:

"If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us" (1 John 1:8).

Also, James writes:

"For we all stumble in many ways. And if anyone does not stumble in what he says, he is a perfect man, able also to bridle his whole body" (James 3:2).

Therefore, the doctrine of "sinless perfection" is a false doctrine that has no exegetical basis in Scripture.

 

[RC1970]

Jesus is sinless and I'm pretty sure He is a Christian.

Other than that, I know of no one else who can be sinless.

 

[Wordkeeper]

There are some churches or denominations (typically from Wesleyan or Holiness backgrounds) that teach that it is possible for Christians to be perfectly sinless in this life. However, this false doctrine clearly goes against the Scriptures. For example, the Apostle John writes:

"If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us" (1 John 1:8).

Also, James writes:

"For we all stumble in many ways. And if anyone does not stumble in what he says, he is a perfect man, able also to bridle his whole body" (James 3:2).

Therefore, the doctrine of "sinless perfection" is a false doctrine that has no exegetical basis in Scripture.

Why is sinlessness required?

 

[Tina W]

Nope, not possible. We all do things every day that we need to repent for, we'd have to already be in our resurrected bodies to live a completely sinless life. We all give in to temptations every day. We can still TRY to live completely sinless, because that's what God looks at, that we are trying. But living completely sinless in these bodies with the fallen nature is impossible.

 

[Tina W]

There are some churches or denominations (typically from Wesleyan or Holiness backgrounds) that teach that it is possible for Christians to be perfectly sinless in this life. However, this false doctrine clearly goes against the Scriptures. For example, the Apostle John writes:

"If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us" (1 John 1:8).

Also, James writes:

"For we all stumble in many ways. And if anyone does not stumble in what he says, he is a perfect man, able also to bridle his whole body" (James 3:2).

Therefore, the doctrine of "sinless perfection" is a false doctrine that has no exegetical basis in Scripture.

Yup, and teaching people that they can be completely sinless does more harm than good because when a person can't achieve it they end up feeling guilty or useless and fall away from Christianity completely thinking it's too hard or they are not good enough etc. We are not perfect we are just forgiven and we are not required to be perfect, God only expects us to try to live as holy as we can and when we fall we just ask His forgiveness.

 

[WirSindBettler]

There are some churches or denominations (typically from Wesleyan or Holiness backgrounds) that teach that it is possible for Christians to be perfectly sinless in this life. However, this false doctrine clearly goes against the Scriptures.

. . . Though one of the only reasons it's so prominent is because of Charles Finney, who, need I remind you, was Presbyterian.

Regardless, it's all theology of glory.

 

[Wordkeeper]

Jesus is sinless and I'm pretty sure He is a Christian.

Other than that, I know of no one else who can be sinless.

Why did Jesus have to be sinless?

 

[RC1970]

Why did Jesus have to be sinless?

Because our Holy God requires perfection.

 

[Wordkeeper]

Because our Holy God requires perfection.

Our Holy God requires perfection for what?

 

[RC1970]

Our Holy God requires perfection for what?

Forever.

 

[brinny]

Is it possible for Christians to be perfectly sinless in this life?

No.

 

[Wordkeeper]

Forever.

For what?

not

For how long?

So,

For what reason does God require perfection?

 

[WirSindBettler]

Why did Jesus have to be sinless?

"For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God." 2 Corinthians 5:21

 

[Wordkeeper]

http://www.wordofhisgrace.org/2cor521QA.htm

Quote
This verse has been a source of controversy among a number of pastors and their churches. So much so, that it has resulted in disfellowshippings, breaking off of relations between congregations, and some very hard and hurt feelings. All of this could have been avoided if someone would have but researched the meaning of one Greek word and its use in the Greek translation of the Old Testament.
The Greek translation of the Old Testament I have in mind is known as the Septuagint, and it was translated about 250 years before the birth of Christ. It was in common use at the time of Christ, and it is often quoted by the New Testament writers. Also, many of the phrases, words, and allusions the New Testament writers use stem from the Septuagint.
The Greek word I have in mind is hamartia. It is the word translated "sin" in 2 Corinthians 5:21. Certainly, hamartia means "sin" and it is often translated as such. But, considering that the version of the Old Testament commonly used at the time the New Testament was written—the version they often had in mind as they wrote—was the Septuagint, it is often very enlightening to see how a Greek word in the New Testament was used in the Greek Septuagint.
What we find, is that in the Septuagint, the word hamartia is very commonly used to mean a "sin offering." That is, it is used where the Hebrew Scriptures are obviously referring to a sin offering and where the English translations also have "sin offering." In just three chapters alone that I happened to pick out (Leviticus 4, 5, and 6), hamartia is used over twenty times to refer to a sin offering.
Considering this, then, what is the best and most natural translation of 2 Corinthians 5:21? Of course, it is simply this: "For the One not knowing sin, He made a sin offering for us, that we should become the righteousness of God in Him." This does not introduce some new idea that Jesus Christ somehow became actual sin, and it perfectly agrees with other Scriptures, such as Ephesians 5:2, "And walk in love, as Christ also hath loved us, and hath given himself for us an offering and a sacrifice to God for a sweetsmelling savour," and Hebrews 10:10, "By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all."

"For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God." 2 Corinthians 5:21

 

[bling]

There are some churches or denominations (typically from Wesleyan or Holiness backgrounds) that teach that it is possible for Christians to be perfectly sinless in this life. However, this false doctrine clearly goes against the Scriptures. For example, the Apostle John writes:

"If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us" (1 John 1:8).

You need to read a little further:


1 John 2: 1 My dear children, I write this to you so that you will not sin. But if anybody does sin, we have an advocate with the Father—Jesus Christ, the Righteous One.

The statement is contingent “but if” and does not say “but when”, so John is not saying all will sin?

Also, James writes:

"For we all stumble in many ways. And if anyone does not stumble in what he says, he is a perfect man, able also to bridle his whole body" (James 3:2).

James is saying; “Controlling the tong is the hardest thing to control and if you can control your tong you can control everything else. Are we told to be perfect?

Therefore, the doctrine of "sinless perfection" is a false doctrine that has no exegetical basis in Scripture.

I will agree with part of your assessment in that some “preach” sinless perfection wrongly, but do you want to “sin no more”?

If it is something you desire would God give you the power to do just that or do we blame God for our sinning since He did not give us the power?

Sin has purpose for the nonbeliever and the nonbeliever will sin, but after the nonbeliever becomes a believer does further sinning have a purpose?

I have not seen those who are really trying not to sin successful in not sinning, but are they going about it the right way?

Can Deity be involved in sinning?

Do you then have to quench the indwelling Holy Spirit in order to sin?

The indwelling Holy Spirit wants to just do all kinds of “good” stuff and is leading you in that direction, but you can make a free will choice to avoid doing good stuff and go out on your own doing your own thing.

Have you ever been around Christians that are really not sinning for seemingly long periods of time? (they are very different and are not suggesting they are doing it by their own ability or are they even trying not to sin, but are really just trying to do good stuff with the Spirit 24/7 which means they unwittingly are not allowing time to sin.)

 

[OSAS Apostle]

Jesus is sinless and I'm pretty sure He is a Christian.

Other than that, I know of no one else who can be sinless.

How about Enoch ?

 

[RC1970]

How about Enoch ?

What about Romans 3:23 ?

 

[OSAS Apostle]

What about Romans 3:23 ?

Good point.

 

[Soyeong]

Sinlessness is the goal of sanctification.

 

[Wordkeeper]

Paul wanted to be sinless. However God said His grace was sufficient.

Now let's work out what this involves. Remember, the writers of Scripture knew that unpacking the view would require supernatural help, require asking for the leading of the Holy Spirit, so expect the view to be complex and nuanced.

Paul knew that sinlessness was required in order to have a better resurrection, the resurrection of body, AS WELL AS THE SPIRIT. In order to save the body, he must subdue it, put to death the deeds of the flesh.
If he walked in the light, his faults would be revealed. If he confessed, agreed with what God's word revealed, God would be righteous and just, be obligated to fulfil His promise because of His just nature, His law abiding nature, not to default on His promise, but make Paul a blessing to the world, by cleansing him of that fault, so that he would be without blemish, an acceptable sacrifice in the sight of God, and so be able to share in what remains of Christ's afflictions.

However, in spite of repeated confession, the thorn in the side that had been given to prevent him from becoming proud was not cleansed. God said His grace was sufficient for Paul.

Sufficient for what?

Sufficient for the inheritance, being a blessing to the world.

Both in this life and at the end.

Because Paul was loyal, he was in God's good books, in His good graces.

Because of being in God's good books, he was IN Christ. Paul was really saved by grace, through faith. He was really receiving the inheritance, being a blessing through the world. Because of his weakness, his listeners knew it was not Paul who spoke words or did works, that confirmed God was with him, just as He had been with Moses, and so it was safe to let these anointed people lead them into safety, into rest, into Christ.


2 Corinthians 12:7Because of the surpassing greatness of the revelations, for this reason, to keep me from exalting myself, there was given me a thorn in the flesh, a messenger of Satan to torment me—to keep me from exalting myself! 8Concerning this I implored the Lord three times that it might leave me. 9And He has said to me, “My grace is sufficient for you, for power is perfected in weakness.” Most gladly, therefore, I will rather boast about my weaknesses, so that the power of Christ may dwell in me. 10Therefore I am well content with weaknesses, with insults, with distresses, with persecutions, with difficulties, for Christ’s sake; for when I am weak, then I am strong.

Sinlessness is the goal of sanctification.