- May 19, 2015
- 125,492
- 28,588
- 73
- Country
- United States
- Faith
- Christian
- Marital Status
- Single
- Politics
- US-Libertarian
[ACK!......Could a Mod pleae change the "18" in the title of the thread to "28"? Thanks.]
I am starting to use the LXX a little more to help harmonize the greek NT/NC.
While translating Deut 28 from the Hebrew awhile back, I decided to look more closely at this particular verse.
The greek word used is #2671 which is shown used 5 times in the NT, all in the Epistles.
I have the way it is translated in the Hebrew below, but I also put up the LXX greek with it.
[I will put up more verses as time allows but according to Paul in Galatian he mentions those under the Law being under a curse].
Does this imply only the Jews/Israelites of today can be considered cursed according to Deut 28:15? Thanks
Deut 28:15 And it becomes if not thou are listening in voice of YHWH thy Elohiym to observe of and to do of all of instructions of Him and statutes of Him which I instructing of thee the day and they come upon thee all of these the curses/katarai #2671 and they overtake thee.
LXX Deut 28:15 kai estai ean mh eisakoushv thv fwnhv kuriou tou qeou sou fulassein kai poiein pasav tav entolav autou osav egw entellomai soi shmeron kai eleusontai epi se pasai ai katarai autai kai katalhmyontai se
Gala 3:10 For as many as from/out of works of law are, under a curse/kataran <2671> are. For it has been written that 'cused/epi-kataratoV <1944> everyone who not remaining to all those having been written in the scroll of the Law of the to do them'.
2671. katara from 2596 (intensive) and 685; imprecation, execration:--curse(-d, ing).
07045 q@lalah from 07043; TWOT - 2028d; n f
AV - curse 27, cursing 5, accursed 1; 33
I am starting to use the LXX a little more to help harmonize the greek NT/NC.
While translating Deut 28 from the Hebrew awhile back, I decided to look more closely at this particular verse.
The greek word used is #2671 which is shown used 5 times in the NT, all in the Epistles.
I have the way it is translated in the Hebrew below, but I also put up the LXX greek with it.
[I will put up more verses as time allows but according to Paul in Galatian he mentions those under the Law being under a curse].
Does this imply only the Jews/Israelites of today can be considered cursed according to Deut 28:15? Thanks
Deut 28:15 And it becomes if not thou are listening in voice of YHWH thy Elohiym to observe of and to do of all of instructions of Him and statutes of Him which I instructing of thee the day and they come upon thee all of these the curses/katarai #2671 and they overtake thee.
LXX Deut 28:15 kai estai ean mh eisakoushv thv fwnhv kuriou tou qeou sou fulassein kai poiein pasav tav entolav autou osav egw entellomai soi shmeron kai eleusontai epi se pasai ai katarai autai kai katalhmyontai se
Gala 3:10 For as many as from/out of works of law are, under a curse/kataran <2671> are. For it has been written that 'cused/epi-kataratoV <1944> everyone who not remaining to all those having been written in the scroll of the Law of the to do them'.
2671. katara from 2596 (intensive) and 685; imprecation, execration:--curse(-d, ing).
07045 q@lalah from 07043; TWOT - 2028d; n f
AV - curse 27, cursing 5, accursed 1; 33
Last edited by a moderator:
