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According to I John 4:12, no one has ever seen God.
So, how can Jesus be God? And how can anyone be in heaven?
So, how can Jesus be God? And how can anyone be in heaven?
According to I John 4:12, no one has ever seen God.
So, how can Jesus be God? And how can anyone be in heaven?
So how can anyone be in heaven with God?God the Father has not been seen by any person
There is no mention of parts. The verse just says, no one has seen God.If we were to take the passage as meaning no one ever has seen any part of God (Father, Son, Holy Ghost) it would contradict the following:
If only Jesus has seen God how can there be anyone in heaven?John 6:46, "No one has seen the Father except the one who is from God (meaning Himself). Only He has seen the Father."
You missed the verse for that one. Can you show me?Jesus, who is God Incarnate, has been seen.
So how can there be anyone in heaven?God the Father has not been seen.
If no one knows the father, how can there be anyone in heaven?Luke 10:22 All things are delivered to me of my Father: and no man knows who the Son is but the Father; and who the Father is, but the Son, and he to whom the Son will reveal him.
It's a paradox that God is both knowable, and in his essence unknowable.So how can anyone be in heaven with God?
That's true, but I would never take a single verse out of the context of the Bible and work a theory on that.There is no mention of parts. The verse just says, no one has seen God.
As above I think 'seen' here means 'know'It's a paradox that God is both knowable, and in his essence unknowable.
Just like I know you, because we talk with each other, but I don't know everything about you, not in your essence. And probably you don't know everything about you.
We can experience God's love which we will do in heaven.
I don't think we sit around on clouds all day staring at God.
We can also know God the Father through the Son.
That's true, but I would never take a single verse out of the context of the Bible and work a theory on that.
If only Jesus has seen God how can there be anyone in heaven?
Well, John is the person writing both:According to I John 4:12, no one has ever seen God.
So, how can Jesus be God? And how can anyone be in heaven?
That would contradict John who said no one has ever seen God at any time. Therefore Daniel's vision was just a vision.Daniel "saw" the Father in vision, he called Him The Ancient of Days.
To what verse does your belief derive? It seems to me that your imagination is at work here!I believe that people haven't seen the Father the way we've seen Jesus. I think that His Presence has been seen, possibly even His form, but covered by His glory.
Where is the verse that states John's statement does not include the dead?Well, John is the person writing both:
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. John 1:14and
No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Fathers side, he has made him known. John 1:18Is John talking at cross purposes with himself? I think it's clearer that John is talking about a specific kind of "no one", a conventional "no one", not a theological, comprehensive "no one". John's point doesn't include the dead, or the angels, etc. He's simply saying, "Ytalk to people, and nobody's really seen God -- [before now] -- but the only God at the Father's side, He [God the Son] has made him [the unseen Father] known."
Thanks for that, but what is your point?Dear Gary51. We know God-Father, God-Son, and God-Holy Spirit, 3 persons/beings, but only One great and powerful God. When Jesus came to Earth as we are, human and born of woman, He kept calling Himself " son of man." He was seen for about 33 years by the than living men and women. After He had paid our debt to God`s Holy Law, and God had raised Him, He told His disciples: " do not be sad, I am going back to the Father." There Jesus, God-Son, part of God, is our Intercessor who pleads our prayers to God. Father, Son and Holy Spirit, ONE GOD. God-Holy Spirit is in the world today, to finish the work which Jesus has started: " redeeming Mankind." I say this humbly and with love, Gary. Greetings from Emmy, your sister in Christ.
Do you believe the word "declare" actually means, seen or saw? And that which is of God can mean other than it was the "Word" who saw Him. And the word "bosom", what does that mean?John 1:18 No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he has declared him.
John 5:37 And the Father himself, which has sent me, has borne witness of me. You have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.
John 6:46 Not that any man has seen the Father, save he which is of God, he has seen the Father.
I think we are too loose with words we should be paying more attention when reading them.
You must mean the "Word" was incarnated?Jesus, who is God Incarnate, has been seen. God the Father has not been seen.
And on the MT Transfiguration, that happened to a select few.Luke 10:22 All things are delivered to me of my Father: and no man knows who the Son is but the Father; and who the Father is, but the Son, and he to whom the Son will reveal him.
That would contradict John who said no one has ever seen God at any time. Therefore Daniel's vision was just a vision.
To what verse does your belief derive? It seems to me that your imagination is at work here!
John said no one has ever seen God. What verse says His Presence has been seen?
According to I John 4:12, no one has ever seen God.
So, how can Jesus be God? And how can anyone be in heaven?
.Jesus is both God and man. When we look at Jesus we see God through His humanity
If that was the case, as you put it, His glory would have prevented anyone from looking at Him. Something is not being understood here.
The humanity of Christ is the perfect expression of God. (Col.1:15 - 20)
In Human form. That can't ever be argued.
If God the Son was not also 100% man? We would still not see God.
God the Son, is only after He earned His position in the Godhead. "He learned by His obedience" and God, the Father, gave the man Jesus a Name above all Names who is coming again in clouds of Glory.
In John 14, Phillip asked to see the Father. Jesus replied to see Jesus is to see the Father.
Yes, and that should be asked of us and rightly answered if we understood our privilege in Christ Jesus.
People can be in heaven because that is where Christ is, seated at the right hand of the Father.
For now and when "all things both in Earth and in Heaven are summed up in Him, He will be God, all three personalities of the Godhead as Divinely Human.
The perfect humanity of Christ exegetes God to us in a way that we can see and understand.
peace
Absolutely, right on.
know I butted in on this. Please accept my apologies. You are on a subject dear to my heart.
My best to you,
Cross
Who has the correct understanding of context? Many make the claim!It's not about contradiction, it's about understanding it in context.
Jonn say he hasn't.As I said, Daniel saw the Father,
I tend to side on the side of what scripture states rather than someone's personal belief from their imagination.and when I say it like that I mean, and this is what I believe personally, that he saw a representation of the Father. A likeness if you will.
Correct, but who has the correct undertanding in which to place the context?Visions should be understood in the context in which they are placed.