Just read a few pages of that thread but did not want to dredge it up from the abyss. However, perhaps ''Ye are gods'' indeed but not in the sense of the good way in which the man invariably tends to think of himself? For the same reason Yeshua did not commit himself unto men, because he knew all men, and needed not that any should testify of man: for he knew what was in man'' (Jn.2:24-25). Thus the ''Ye are gods'' statement is not a good thing when compared to the commandment:
Exodus 20:1-3 KJV
1. And God spake all these words, saying,
2. I am the Lord thy God, which have brought thee out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage.
3. Thou shalt have no other gods before me.
The commandment includes ourselves because he states: ''Ye are gods'' ...
I think the usage of Exodus 20:1-3 is off a bit due to the full context of what Yeshua noted when saying "Ye Are Gods" in the positive form. And although man can glorify himself needlessly and think of himself as a "god" when he really isn't (in the sense of glorifying himself), it doesn't mean that God did not make man God-Like.
There was much within Jewish thought/Eastern culture that was in no way against the concept that man was a "god"...as that was never seen as counter to the fact that God is the Creator of man and man will never become like him. Nonetheless, he is an Elohim.
On the Jewish perspective, on John 10:31-33, within its larger context:
John 10:20-33
....Jesus said to them, I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?
33 We are not stoning you for any good work, they replied, but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.
34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your Law, I have said you are gods[c]? 35 If he called them gods, to whom the word of God cameand Scripture cannot be set aside 36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, I am Gods Son? 37 Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father. 38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.
With John 10:31-33, one must remember that the Jews had already made clear that they claimed the ENTIRE Torah was theirs and that they were going to stone Jesus for it when he seemed to break it for claiming He was God. They felt that the Law God had given them in Exodus 20 was being broken when it came to Jesus doing what it was that they were going to stone Him for previously in John 8:59...and that issue was self-identificaiton as God, which they understood to be blasphemy. Their understanding of BLASPHEMY was based on how claiming to be God and, specifically, pronouncing God's name (as Yeshua had just done) were punishable by death (Leviticus 24:15-16 and Mishna Sanhedrin 7:5, "The blasphemer is not guilty until he pronounces the NAME.")
With John 10:34-36, the phrase "Your Torah" is something that is often read without other considerations. For here, "Torah" means "Tanakh, " since the passage quoted is from the Psalms, not the Pentateuch. When Jesus says "You people are Elohim", here Greek theoi ("gods"), in the Hebrew text of Psalm 82 the word "elohim" may be translated "God," "gods," "judges" or "angels." Yeshua's rabbinic mode of Bible citation implies the context of the whole psalm (Matthew 2:6), which plays on these meanings:
"Elohim [God] stands in the congregation of EL [God]:
He judges among the elohim [judges/angels/gods]: How long
will you judge unjustly?..I have said , "You are elohim [judges/angels/gods],
All of you are sons of the Most High."
Nevertheless you will all die like a man
And fall like one of the princes.'
Arise, Elohim [God (the Judge)], and judge the earth,
For you will inherit all the nations." (Psalm 82:1-2, 6-8).
And again, to be clear, it needs to be understood that in Judaism the citation of a Scripture text implies the whole context, not merely the quoted words. And with what Jesus quoted on Psalm 82, the first and last "Elohim" mean "God," but the others should be rendered "judges," "gods" or "angels." Yeshua's wordplay implies a rabbinic-style kal v' chomer argument (Matthew 6:30): if humans, who do evil works as they "judge unjustly" are elohim, how much more is Yeshua, who does good works (John 10:25, John 10:32-33, John 10:37-38, etc) Elohim; and if "all of you are sons of the Most High," how much more does the description "Son of God" apply to Yeshua.
Moving beyond that, one can also consider again
John 15:24-26
24 If I had not done among them the works no one else did, they would not be guilty of sin. As it is, they have seen, and yet they have hated both me and my Father. 25 But this is to fulfill what is written in their Law: They hated me without reason.[a]
The phrase "Their law ..." stresses the inordinate regard the priests had for the external features of Moses' law (which is what Christ was frequently against when it came to the Pharisee's interpretation of the Law in legalistic/"Letter of the Law" thinking rather than the intent of the Law---Love, which is what God has repeatedly noted is the TRUE Law. With the religious leaders, it was "theirs" in the sense of the affectionate regard they professed for it, while actually denying it by their sinful conduct. Note that the quotation ascribed to "the law" was not from the Pentateuch, thus revealing that the term "law" was a reference to the entire Old Testament.
Being made in the Image of God/His LIKENESS, I choose to believe that man was made to be like him...as well as recognizing that God will always be superior to man/the Savior and Master of all.
This goes back to what happened at the Fall of man when he fell from the State he was in...as many are of the thought that man, as he participated with the Spirit of God/followed him, was in the process of glorification---becoming a "god"/"son of God" and elohim just as it is when men are called to grow in reflecting the Lord/becoming more like him.
I definately agree with the thought that "gods" can be equated with "judges"...especially when considering things such as Psalm 82 and how those in the community had been commissioned by God to rule with justice/reflect Him in their administration for the oppressed. Its similar to the dynamic of divine agency...and in line with what it means to be truly a "son of god" when one reflects his character/heart.
.....On John 10:33-35 where Jesus said to the Jews "You are gods"...for commentary on the issue (IVP New Testament Commentaries ):
Jesus defends his claim using language they should be able to understand, through an appeal to the law. He cites a text that uses the word god of those who are not God: Is it not written in your Law, "I have said you are gods"? (v. 34). It is unclear who is being referred to in Psalm 82:6. Of the several proposals made by scholars (cf. Beasley-Murray 1987:176-77), the most likely takes this as a reference either to Israel's judges or to the people of Israel as they receive the law. The latter is a common understanding among the rabbis (for example, b. 'Aboda Zara 5a; Exodus Rabbah 32:7), but the former is also represented in Jewish interpretation (Midrash Psalms; b. Sanhedrin 6b; 7a; b. Sota 47b). Jesus' explanation that these gods are those to whom the word of God came (v. 35) might point to the Israelites receiving the law. In this case the contrast between these gods and Jesus would be that Jesus is the one who both fulfills the law and is greater than the law.
But this expression to whom the word of God came could also refer to the judges (as suggested by the rest of Ps 82) who have received a commission from God to exercise the divine prerogative of judgment on his behalf. The psalm is actually a condemnation of the judges for not exercising their responsibility faithfully, thus corresponding both to the condemnation of these Jewish leaders in John and to Jesus as the true judge.
To make his point Jesus uses an argument from the lesser to the greater, a very common form of argument in the ancient world, not least among the rabbis. He compares the people who are called gods to himself, the Son of God. They merely received the word of God, whereas he is the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world (v. 36). Here is a succinct summary of the central truth of his identity, which has been emphasized throughout this Gospel. He is using the language of an agent (see note on 5:21), but the implication is that he existed with the Father before coming into the world. Thus, he is putting himself in the category of the law that was given by God rather than in the category of one of the recipients of that law. By saying he was set apart ("consecrated," hagiazo) he is claiming a status similar to the temple, whose reconsecration these opponents are celebrating at this feast.
Many people may be unaware of the actual history behind the time when this psalm was written, as this short psalm is a vindictive pronouncement against corrupt judges. "Gods" in Cannaanite culture, was spoken in a time when the heads of clans, tribes, or city-kings were highly venerated by following generations and often recieving the title of "gods"...and obvious is the fact that Jesus quoted in John 10:34 to defend his claim to sonship. Since all the Jewish leaders were called "gods....children of the Most High".....and to be clear, the reference does not attribute deity to the judges to whom it refers, but was a title of commendation, noting the God-Given capacities of Human Life and Will--the Fruit of being made "in his image."
To the best of my understanding, Psalm 82:2, which Christ referenced in John 10 where Jesus made clear that the psalm proved that the word "god" can be legitimately used to refer to others than God Himself...with the affirmation being that scripture cannot be broken and that the authority of scripture will always stand.. On the basis of the entire issue, as with Psalm 82 (much like Psalm 2 and Psalm 58), the focus is on the injustices of tyranny....and the Psalmist pictures standing in the assembly of earthly leaders, to whom He has delegated authority, and condemning their injustices. The first part deals with the assembly of world leaders before God (Psalm 82:1), the second part deals with the evaluation of World leaders by God (Psalm 82:2-7) and the third part deals with the replacement of world leaders with God (Psalm 82:8). The scene in Psalm 82 opens with God calling the world leaders together, with the "gods" being human leaders, such as Judges, kings, legislators, and presidents (Exodus 18:21-23, Exodus 21:5-7, Exodus 22:8-10, Deuteronomy 1:15-17, Deuteronomy 16, etc). There was nothing wrong in the culture of Judaism with saying others in leadership positions were "gods."
The common thought was that God is the Great Judge who presides over the lesser judges. In Psalm 82, God accuses the lesser judges of social injustices that violate the Mosaic Code/Law, Deuteronomy 24:8 --just as He still does with those in positions of judging matters when the Lord has placed them into a position of leadership.
The leaders exercise authority over those the lord has entrusted them to show justice to, the divinely established moral order undergirding human existence is destroyed. As seen when God Himself stated "I have said 'you are gods'" in verse 6 of Psalm 82, Kings and judges/rulers are set up by the Lord ultimately to give stability...hence, why God invests His authority in Human leaders Romans 13:9....but God may check leaders on it when it is used wrongly...as the psalm makes that clear that despite being made in God's image as those who were charged to walk in authority/show who He was, they would die like human beings, with unjust rulers becoming vunerable to violent deaths often accompanying the wicked.
For those who're "gods" are the ones who're in position of authority. Had nothing to do with them being deity or ones to be worshipped as the true God was. But it was very much a Divine matter since authority is given divinely/by association makes one in connection with that which is Divine----just as it is the case with us who share in the Lord's Spirit so that we can become conformed to His nature/operate in His power.
It is true that the Hebrew "Elohim" can be translated as "Judges" also......but the Greek had separate words for judges (KRITIKOS) and god (THEOS). This word is THEOS in [John 10:34]. Thus....it can only mean that He was referring to the fact that He considered the passage in [Psalm 82:6] to mean gods. So....according to the scripture He offered the Jews....it was not blasphemous. It is the ultimate destiny of all who would believe in Him.
Let's face it. If you someday are born into the family of God and receive eternal life as a spirit being in that family......and you are referred to as a child of God.....then you are in essence.......going to be called gods......as well.
Additionally, there's also the issue of the perspectives in Hebraic culture on how the same concepts of "god" were seen in other usages. Satan being the "god" of this world according to II Corinthians, with other scriptures making clear the language used to to convey the idea of one in a position of authority---as he is the ruler of this earthly realm/in the heairarchy of Heaven, angels cannot contend against him directly/speak against him....though as based on Jude and the view of spiritual hiearchy in the spiritual realm, that's another issue.
Most of you have not heard such outrageous things before! But what Johanna has stated is true coming from her experience in the occult! 
