The following is from the Mid-Acts Perspective of Dispensationalism...
The title of the book of Hebrews is our first clue regarding the authorship of this book and to whom it was written. The title alone teaches us that Paul could have not penned this epistle. There is not one verse in our Bible where God directs Paul to write exclusively to a certain group of people. Quite the contrary. Read the next 3 verses: Acts 9:15: But the Lord said unto him, Go thy way: for he is a chosen vessel unto me, to bear my name before the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel and Acts 22:15: For thou (Paul) shalt be his witness unto all men of what thou hast seen and heard and Acts 26:17: Delivering thee from the people (the Hebrews), and from the Gentiles, unto whom now I send thee. Pauls ministry and gospel is to everyone, never just to the Hebrews.
The first key to understanding that Paul did not pen the book of Hebrews is to understand that the words Hebrew and Jew carry different meanings. Anybody can become a Jew, but not everybody can become an Hebrew.
Scripturally, the word Jew is associated with the Law and the keeping of the Law...Judaism ( Act 26:5). Generally speaking, the word Israel is a reference to the land that God gave the nation of Israel. There is a reason for this a reason which has a future fulfillment (as taught in Hebrews through Revelation). Read Isa.43:1: But now saith the LORD that created thee, O Jacob, and he that formed thee, O Israel, Fear not: for I have redeemed thee, I have called thee by thy name; thou art mine and Isa.43:15: I am the LORD, your Holy One, the creator of Israel, your King. When the Bible is not studied dispensationally, it causes many to spiritualize (to convert from literal to spiritual) the nation of Israel, the kingdom promised that nation, and sometimes the people themselves. Why? It is because they want to be a part of the only nation created by God for Himself. This errant doctrine is not taught in scripture. One does not have to be part of a nation (spiritual or otherwise) to get the blessings of the Lord today. Israel is the Bibles prime example of a nation that had it all but lost it because they tried to maintain their own righteousness through the works of their flesh the law!
Scripture defines the word Hebrew as a fleshly descendant of Abraham. The Apostle Paul highlights the difference in meaning between the words Jew and Hebrew. Rom.9:3: For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen ACCORDING TO THE FLESH. Rom.11:1: I say then, Hath God cast away his people: God forbid. For I also am an Israelite, OF THE SEED OF ABRAHAM, of the tribe of Benjamin. From this verse we can see that an Israelite is the same thing as an Hebrew a fleshly descendant of Abraham. Jacob was a fleshly descendant of Abraham whom God re-named Israel. (Gen.32:28) The difference in the two words, I believe, highlights the fact that God promised the land of Israel to Abrahams fleshly descendants...the Hebrews. Paul continues showing this difference when he described himself in Phil.3:5: Circumcised the eighth day, OF THE STOCK OF ISRAEL, of the tribe of Benjamin, an Hebrew of the Hebrews Notice Paul does not say a Jew of the Jews. Pauls most defining verse regarding this distinction is found in 2Cor.11:22: Are they Hebrews? so am I. Are they Israelites? so am I. Are they the SEED OF ABRAHAM? so am I. Paul is talking about his ethnic origin, from which no one can be separated. Did you notice once again that Paul did not use the word Jew? Not only did Paul (as we will see) consider himself to be a Jew (part of Israels religion), an Israelite (belonging to the land), he was also an Hebrew (according to the flesh). Jesus Himself acknowledges this fleshly, genealogical pedigree but not in a very flattering way. He tells Israels leaders in John 8:33-44: Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do
Many use Luke17:20,21 to prove a spiritual kingdom/nation (disproving this teaching will also disprove the notion of a spiritual Jew). They say this passage teaches that the kingdom of God is spiritual in nature and that it resides in believing hearts. But these verses do not teach this. The hrase within you means in the midst of. Jesus Christ was in the midst of the nation of Israel (Joel 2:27; Zeph.3:5; Zech.2:5; Jn.1:11,31; 20:19,26 ). He was the representation and manifestation of the kingdom promised that nation. If they (as a nation/commonwealth) had believed that He was their Messiah, the kingdom would have come as previously prophesied (Isa.2:1-5). In Luke 17:20,21, Jesus is talking to the Pharisees. An earlier passage in Luke 7:30 states: But the Pharisees and lawyers rejected the counsel of God against themselves, being not baptized of him. Do you actually think this so-called spiritual kingdom of God would reside in the hearts of the very people who rejected Gods counsel? If this were a spiritual kingdom, why would the Lord teach the Jews to pray for a physical, earthly kingdom in Mat.6:9,10: After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come, Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven. Why can we read of that great city, the holy Jerusalem, descending out of heaven from God in Rev.21:2,3,9,10? Why do Psa.48:2 and Mat.5:35 speak of the city of the great king? In Luke 19:41, did Jesus Christ weep over a spiritual city? What about the Lords promise to Abram of a physical piece of identifiable real estate? Gen.17:8: And I will give unto thee, and to thy seed after thee, the LAND wherein thou art a stranger, all the land of Canaan, for an EVERLASTING POSSESSION This sounds very literal to me!
End Part One
Reasons why Paul did not author Hebrews
By Raymond J. Keable, Part One
By Raymond J. Keable, Part One
The title of the book of Hebrews is our first clue regarding the authorship of this book and to whom it was written. The title alone teaches us that Paul could have not penned this epistle. There is not one verse in our Bible where God directs Paul to write exclusively to a certain group of people. Quite the contrary. Read the next 3 verses: Acts 9:15: But the Lord said unto him, Go thy way: for he is a chosen vessel unto me, to bear my name before the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel and Acts 22:15: For thou (Paul) shalt be his witness unto all men of what thou hast seen and heard and Acts 26:17: Delivering thee from the people (the Hebrews), and from the Gentiles, unto whom now I send thee. Pauls ministry and gospel is to everyone, never just to the Hebrews.
The first key to understanding that Paul did not pen the book of Hebrews is to understand that the words Hebrew and Jew carry different meanings. Anybody can become a Jew, but not everybody can become an Hebrew.
Scripturally, the word Jew is associated with the Law and the keeping of the Law...Judaism ( Act 26:5). Generally speaking, the word Israel is a reference to the land that God gave the nation of Israel. There is a reason for this a reason which has a future fulfillment (as taught in Hebrews through Revelation). Read Isa.43:1: But now saith the LORD that created thee, O Jacob, and he that formed thee, O Israel, Fear not: for I have redeemed thee, I have called thee by thy name; thou art mine and Isa.43:15: I am the LORD, your Holy One, the creator of Israel, your King. When the Bible is not studied dispensationally, it causes many to spiritualize (to convert from literal to spiritual) the nation of Israel, the kingdom promised that nation, and sometimes the people themselves. Why? It is because they want to be a part of the only nation created by God for Himself. This errant doctrine is not taught in scripture. One does not have to be part of a nation (spiritual or otherwise) to get the blessings of the Lord today. Israel is the Bibles prime example of a nation that had it all but lost it because they tried to maintain their own righteousness through the works of their flesh the law!
Scripture defines the word Hebrew as a fleshly descendant of Abraham. The Apostle Paul highlights the difference in meaning between the words Jew and Hebrew. Rom.9:3: For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen ACCORDING TO THE FLESH. Rom.11:1: I say then, Hath God cast away his people: God forbid. For I also am an Israelite, OF THE SEED OF ABRAHAM, of the tribe of Benjamin. From this verse we can see that an Israelite is the same thing as an Hebrew a fleshly descendant of Abraham. Jacob was a fleshly descendant of Abraham whom God re-named Israel. (Gen.32:28) The difference in the two words, I believe, highlights the fact that God promised the land of Israel to Abrahams fleshly descendants...the Hebrews. Paul continues showing this difference when he described himself in Phil.3:5: Circumcised the eighth day, OF THE STOCK OF ISRAEL, of the tribe of Benjamin, an Hebrew of the Hebrews Notice Paul does not say a Jew of the Jews. Pauls most defining verse regarding this distinction is found in 2Cor.11:22: Are they Hebrews? so am I. Are they Israelites? so am I. Are they the SEED OF ABRAHAM? so am I. Paul is talking about his ethnic origin, from which no one can be separated. Did you notice once again that Paul did not use the word Jew? Not only did Paul (as we will see) consider himself to be a Jew (part of Israels religion), an Israelite (belonging to the land), he was also an Hebrew (according to the flesh). Jesus Himself acknowledges this fleshly, genealogical pedigree but not in a very flattering way. He tells Israels leaders in John 8:33-44: Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do
Many use Luke17:20,21 to prove a spiritual kingdom/nation (disproving this teaching will also disprove the notion of a spiritual Jew). They say this passage teaches that the kingdom of God is spiritual in nature and that it resides in believing hearts. But these verses do not teach this. The hrase within you means in the midst of. Jesus Christ was in the midst of the nation of Israel (Joel 2:27; Zeph.3:5; Zech.2:5; Jn.1:11,31; 20:19,26 ). He was the representation and manifestation of the kingdom promised that nation. If they (as a nation/commonwealth) had believed that He was their Messiah, the kingdom would have come as previously prophesied (Isa.2:1-5). In Luke 17:20,21, Jesus is talking to the Pharisees. An earlier passage in Luke 7:30 states: But the Pharisees and lawyers rejected the counsel of God against themselves, being not baptized of him. Do you actually think this so-called spiritual kingdom of God would reside in the hearts of the very people who rejected Gods counsel? If this were a spiritual kingdom, why would the Lord teach the Jews to pray for a physical, earthly kingdom in Mat.6:9,10: After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come, Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven. Why can we read of that great city, the holy Jerusalem, descending out of heaven from God in Rev.21:2,3,9,10? Why do Psa.48:2 and Mat.5:35 speak of the city of the great king? In Luke 19:41, did Jesus Christ weep over a spiritual city? What about the Lords promise to Abram of a physical piece of identifiable real estate? Gen.17:8: And I will give unto thee, and to thy seed after thee, the LAND wherein thou art a stranger, all the land of Canaan, for an EVERLASTING POSSESSION This sounds very literal to me!
End Part One