@DaveW-Ohev:
Thank you for your correction about the Maccabeans!
I know that the authorship of Hebrews is a controversial topic, but Clement of Alexandria says that Paul wrote the book and that it was translated by Luke into Greek. I find this plausible, but don't get me wrong, this is no big deal for me at all. It wouldn't be a deal-breaker for me if conclusive evidence was found that disputed this.
The Covenant and Hebrews
“When he speaks of a new covenant, he makes the first obsolete. Now what is growing obsolete and aging is about to disappear.” Hebrews 8:13.
Now, the first covenant was obsolete when these words were written. I simply take “about to disappear” simply as a reference to the fact that the rites of the “Old Covenant” still were carried out as before in the temple service. Here it was predicted that this blind service (see 2 Corinthians 3:14) soon would be forcefully terminated.
Divorce and Jesus:
Well, Jesus seem to assume that the mosaic permission for divorce was somewhat broad, didn't he?
“Then some Pharisees came, and to test him they asked, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?" He answered them, "What did Moses command you?" They said, "Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of dismissal and to divorce her." But Jesus said to them, "He wrote this commandment for you because of your hard hearts.” Mark 10:2-5
Are you “hard hearted” if you divorce someone due to adultery or because you marry someone and find out that they had been sleeping around? (That's for instance what Joseph wanted to do when he thought Mary had been unfaithful.)
If it was found out that a girl wasn't a virgin when she married, she was supposed to be stoned to death. (Deuteronomy 22:20-21.) Thus, a “certificate of dismissal” wasn't necessary if a girl really had been “playing the harlot in her father's house”, so this cannot be what Jesus was referring to. In other words, his understanding of what was permitted in relation to divorce under the mosaic law apparently harmonizes with Hillel, and he explains that the reason for this broad permission is “the hardness of hearts”, but he goes a step further. He states that from God's point of view the only valid reason for divorce is adultery, thus agreeing with Shammai!
Thank you for your correction about the Maccabeans!
I know that the authorship of Hebrews is a controversial topic, but Clement of Alexandria says that Paul wrote the book and that it was translated by Luke into Greek. I find this plausible, but don't get me wrong, this is no big deal for me at all. It wouldn't be a deal-breaker for me if conclusive evidence was found that disputed this.
The Covenant and Hebrews
“When he speaks of a new covenant, he makes the first obsolete. Now what is growing obsolete and aging is about to disappear.” Hebrews 8:13.
Now, the first covenant was obsolete when these words were written. I simply take “about to disappear” simply as a reference to the fact that the rites of the “Old Covenant” still were carried out as before in the temple service. Here it was predicted that this blind service (see 2 Corinthians 3:14) soon would be forcefully terminated.
Divorce and Jesus:
Well, Jesus seem to assume that the mosaic permission for divorce was somewhat broad, didn't he?
“Then some Pharisees came, and to test him they asked, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?" He answered them, "What did Moses command you?" They said, "Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of dismissal and to divorce her." But Jesus said to them, "He wrote this commandment for you because of your hard hearts.” Mark 10:2-5
Are you “hard hearted” if you divorce someone due to adultery or because you marry someone and find out that they had been sleeping around? (That's for instance what Joseph wanted to do when he thought Mary had been unfaithful.)
If it was found out that a girl wasn't a virgin when she married, she was supposed to be stoned to death. (Deuteronomy 22:20-21.) Thus, a “certificate of dismissal” wasn't necessary if a girl really had been “playing the harlot in her father's house”, so this cannot be what Jesus was referring to. In other words, his understanding of what was permitted in relation to divorce under the mosaic law apparently harmonizes with Hillel, and he explains that the reason for this broad permission is “the hardness of hearts”, but he goes a step further. He states that from God's point of view the only valid reason for divorce is adultery, thus agreeing with Shammai!
Upvote
0
