My point was as we know Jesus was without sin, thus he did not violate the law. Another person on here said since it is not mentioned one way or another that Jesus did not tithe we can assume that he did....that is false. One we are not to assume things that are not provided in scripture.
You are asserting that because scripture does not positively provide an example of Jesus tithing, then we must not presume He did and must necessarily conclude He did not.
If we believe Jesus did not violate the law, then we do, very much, presume He obeyed every instance of the Law that would have applied to Him whether scripture presents us with explicit examples each instance or not. We presume, for instance, that Jesus did not wear mixed fabric or cut the edges of His beard, and that He ate lamb at Passover.
Or are you intending to continue your argument that since scripture does not say anything about whether Jesus obeyed the law on those points that we must not presume He did and necessarily conclude He did not?
Secondly as you pointed out tithe items were very very specific, produce (wheat, barley, olive oil, herbs, and so on) and cattle or livestock. The reason Jesus did not tithe is because he was a carpenter like Joseph, and he did not have tithe items therefore was not required to tithe. Notice there is no mention of Peter, Andrew or any fishermen tithing as well....why because fish were not a tithe item and therefore not required...there is no loophole.
First, note that the purpose of the tithe was to provide for an all-nation feast. The people were to bring their produce in order to eat it as a massive, rollicking, "pot luck dinner" of the entire nation. This was not a tax, nor was it an onerous duty--it was a
party.
So the first question is: Did Jesus take part in the feast of the tithe along with the rest of the nation? Perhaps He was not required to bring food for the tithe if He had no food (notice, for instance, that a shepherd who had only nine sheep was also not required to bring a sheep to the tithe).
Or, also very possible, the Law's prescription for people with money to
buy food for the tithe would have applied to Him--I'd personally presume that He would have
bought food to bring to the feast rather than sitting down to the table empty-handed and mooching on others when He had money in His purse.
Then you say what the tithe is to Christians. With all due respect Christians are not commended to tithe.....The whole purpose of the tithe was to support the temple system to which the temple system was in place for sin covering....since Jesus paid the price once and for all there is no need for sacrifices anymore thus the temple system is done away with and thus so is the tithe...in the NT Jesus nor any Apostle ever required a tithe or took a tithe.
I won't argue against that.
