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Nonsense!
It was not universally accepted in the days of Christ and it was not universally accepted in the days of Paul.
That - if I'm not mistaken - was considerably before the year 1400 A.D.
Your theology has trumped both accurate historical records and the scriptures themselves.
You are doing exactly the kind of thing that you are railing against.
Is this your opinion? Can you supply a single church leader in the Ante-Nicene period that denies the necessity of baptism in salvation? I can give you many affirmative quotes if you'd like.
All you've done is arbitrarily disagreed.
The scriptural evidence stands in favor of baptism being only an evidence of prior salvation after salvation by faith. It does not show that it is a part of salvation in the basic sense.
Can you prove that statement?
"Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved."
Why post a passage about faith when you're trying to negate baptism? If this passage had said belief alone you might have an argument. However, it doesn't. Believing on the Lord doesn't negate baptism it's a prerequisite.
"If you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God rised Him from the dead - you will be saved"
See comment above
"Today you will be with me in Paradise."
This passage says nothing about the subject at all. There's nothing about how one is saved.
"I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius, so that no one would say you were baptized in my name. Now I did baptize also the household of Stephanas; beyond that, I do not know whether I baptized any other. For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not in cleverness of speech, so that the cross of Christ would not be made void."
There's nothing here about whether or not baptism is necessary.
“Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we did, can he?” And he ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. "
This passage says nothing about them being saved. You're begging the question. You're assuming they were saved when the Holy Spirit fell on them. Thus you conclude that they were saved before baptism to prove they were save after baptism.
"And Philip said, “If you believe with all your heart, you may.” And he answered and said, “I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.” And he ordered the chariot to stop; and they both went down into the water, Philip as well as the eunuch, and he baptized him."
Same as above, this is begging the question. You assume one is saved by belief without baptism and use this passage to say that one is saved without baptism.
"While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who were listening to the message. All the circumcised believers who came with Peter were amazed, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also. For they were hearing them speaking with tongues and exalting God. Then Peter answered, “Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we did, can he?” And he ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked him to stay on for a few days."
Again it's begging the question.
I submit that, if you used more the method of inference that you speak so fervently against using, you would not be in error on this doctrine.
But you've just proven that not to be the case. You're inference that one is saved by belief alone has cause you to beg the question on these other passages. That's what I've been saying all along. One wrong inference can lead to further misunderstandings of the text. The belief that belief alone saves has cause a misunderstanding of the passages posted above.
Of course baptism playing a part in salvation plays well with a works based salvation philosophy.
But you see there is nothing wrong with works. It's in your theology that it is a problem, not in the Scriptures.
I believe that you are letting your theology influence your view of this subject just as you have with some other subjects and passages that you have talked about here in this thread.
A little more inference and a little more allowing scripture to interpret scripture and you'd be much better off in so far as your theology goes IMO.
As I said, you've shown that inference isn't the way to go. Scripture doesn't interpret Scripture, that's a fallacy. Scripture must be interpreted, it doesn't talk. Scripture doesn't tells someone when they misunderstand it.
This isn't a baptism thread so I'm not going that route, if you want we can discuss that in anther thread. I will mention this though. There are quite a few passages that do teach us what baptism is and it's purpose, you didn't post any of them.
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