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Does Put Away & Divorce mean the same?

Discussion in 'Divorced Members' started by lost72, Nov 16, 2004.

  1. lost72

    lost72 New Member

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    I have been doing research and from articles I have read, I am led to believe that the term put away and the word divorced have been incorrectly translated to english versions of the bible in the exact context it was meant. I would love any Christian input on this topic.
    In most scriptures in the bible if you replace the word put away with the word divorce it gives the sentence a whole new meaning. People didnt get divorced they only put away (separated from their wives) So is it really divorce that is wrong or the putting away without divorcing?

    It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

    Matthew 5:31-32

    This is where my questions come in. There was only 2 divorces in the bible. This seems to clearly state that whoever puts his wife away must give her writing of divorcement. Whoever puts his wife away causeth her to commit adultery. Is the put away with or without the writing of divorcement, since the bible only talks about 2 divorces. Was this Jesus way of making sure people got divorced rather than "just separated" because of the hardness of mans heart?? The hardness of mens hearts meant that the men did not want to divorce their wives and give them freedom, they wanted to claim them back one day. They put them away for future use, obvioulsy the woman would commit adultery if she remarried because she still belonged to her husband. UNLESS OF COURSE HE HIMSELF COMMITTED ADULTERY THUS FREEING HER BOND TO HIM.

    Another.....
    Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from [her] husband committeth adultery.

    Luke 16:18


    I am led to believe because of the translation of the greek and hebrew words that this wife is put away without a writing of divorcement.


    The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause? And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made [them] at the beginning made them male and female, And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to GIVE A WRITING OF DIVORCEMENT, AND to PUT HER AWAY? He saith unto them, Moses because of the HARDNESS of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except [it be] for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
    Matthew 19:3-9

    My understanding again is that men were forced to divorce their wives rather than just putting them away and being greedy because of the hardness of their hearts. That is why one is only free if the husband put her away without divorcing her if he was unfaithful. In some other scriptures it uses the word divorce when it should be put away, making it confusing. Could this be a mistranslation over many years. It really has me curious. Have you ever played the gossip game. One person starts a sentence and u pass it around the room. When it is passed on the 25 person or so, it is a completly changed sentence. How can we be sure that the Hebrew and greek words were properly put into english with the exact context that was intended?????? The greek word for put away is apuolo I can not remember the greek word for divorce, but translators that have reasearched this have that the exact translation was lost. Another loophole? Or is there any possiblity?


    The greek word for sent away is apoulo and the greek word for divorce is aposatian. The word divorce is used three times in the bible and it refers to the legal aspects, not just sending one away.


    I have a few websites to read more if you are interested. I found so many regarding this topic.

    Please let me know what you think.

    www.webedelic.com/church/putawayt.htm
    http://home.earthlink.net/~truth/sec8-4-2marriage.html
     
  2. Jennifer615

    Jennifer615 Senior Member

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    Thankyou Lost72 :D . This was one of the most freeing, soothing articles I have ever read. :)

    I read something quite similar in a book called "Divorce, God's Will?" The website is:

    www.divorcehope.com

    It is so true. So many innocent abused women get doubly abused by Christians who put so much condemnation on them for divorcing abusive husbands. I was one of them. It is also true that alot of those women join feminists groups and become anti-man and anti-church. I have a friend who this happened to. She considers herself a Christian, but she has become pro-choice, and advises women against marrying Christians.:eek:

    Thanks again and God bless.
     
  3. lost72

    lost72 New Member

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  4. Yitzchak

    Yitzchak יצחק

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    I have never heard this perspective before. It is an interesting perspective. I am not sure what I think about it yet.
    I do know that divorce has caused many problems in our generation espeacially for the children. Even without an explicit command in scripture against it, I would say common sense goes against it being a good thing for me to be breaking a vow I made to God and to the witnesses present.
    I do think also that common sense dictates exceptions for some cases. But to divorce just because I no longer want to be marryed breaks a vow I made to God regardless of hwo I interpret a given passage.