He believed God and it was accounted to Him as righteousness.
Did he believe what God wrote down, used hand signs to communicate or what God actually "spoke" to Him?
"Now the LORD had
said unto Abram"
"And the LORD appeared unto Abram, and
said..."
It was not working the law which was not given at the time of Abraham.
Is obeying the voice of the Lord, in essence, obeying His commandments, i.e. what He "speaks." Or, do you say to God, "Well God, that's not in your word so you must not be speaking to me?"
This must not be true: "It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God."
So therefore Abraham did not obey the 10 for they were not given.
He hearkened (listened) to the voice of the Lord.
Jer 2:4 Hear ye the word of the LORD, O house of Jacob, and all the families of the house of Israel:
Oh, that's right....you don't have to listen to God.
No sabbath day given to obey. LOL
See Ezekiel 20.
Eze 20:12 Moreover also I gave them my sabbaths, to be a sign between me and them, that they might know that I [am] the LORD that sanctify them.
Eze 20:13 But the house of Israel rebelled against me in the wilderness: they walked not in my statutes, and they despised my judgments, which [if] a man do, he shall even live in them; and my sabbaths they greatly polluted: then I said, I would pour out my fury upon them in the wilderness, to consume them.
Eze 20:14 But I wrought for my name's sake, that it should not be polluted before the heathen, in whose sight I brought them out.