- Feb 25, 2016
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To me it would have made no difference since I consider the conception immaculate in either case. Perhaps it is the definition of what the word immaculate means to many.
I was taught that immaculate conception in relation to Jesus meant that Adamic sin was not permitted to be part of his DNA. In short, he was genetically spotless as required.
Yes, I was taught that Mary was a virgin when she conceived. Nevertheless, it was he overpowering of the holy spirit which was emphasized and nothing could have gotten in the way of the spirit in its mission to transfer Jesus' life from heaven to Mary's womb in the manner required-not even her virginal or non virginal state.
However, her being a virgin does add a certain honor to the conception since we humans tend to view female virginity as equivalent to purity and find it very appropriate that our Lord and Savior's life should have been transferred in that manner.
I was taught that immaculate conception in relation to Jesus meant that Adamic sin was not permitted to be part of his DNA. In short, he was genetically spotless as required.
Yes, I was taught that Mary was a virgin when she conceived. Nevertheless, it was he overpowering of the holy spirit which was emphasized and nothing could have gotten in the way of the spirit in its mission to transfer Jesus' life from heaven to Mary's womb in the manner required-not even her virginal or non virginal state.
However, her being a virgin does add a certain honor to the conception since we humans tend to view female virginity as equivalent to purity and find it very appropriate that our Lord and Savior's life should have been transferred in that manner.