Did Jesus Have Free Will?

Found Isles

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Hello,

I have read the New Testament multiple times, and while reading it most recently the possibility that Jesus Christ may not have had free will came to me.
If God acted through Christ-- who was a human-- to cause a change on Earth, how much of Christ's actions were his own, and what degree of his actions were God's? It seemed that Christ had at times many of the frailties of humans, but at other times the insight and confidence of not just a prophet, but God-incarnate.
There are many different interpretations and conclusions that are arrived at when reading the New Testament, and my current interpretation is that God possessed Christ's body occasionally to effect a change on Earth. This seems to be a violation of the free will that God has instilled in humanity, and an action which is not perfectly good on God's part.
Please help me understand the relationship between God and Christ more.

-Jordan
 

Chicken Little

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what you write makes no sense.
man has only ever dealt with Jehovah/ Jesus and never has mankind ever dealt with the Father directly and won't until the 8thday.
spend sometime reading where the jews are trying to say they know the God of the fathers and Jesus is calling them out because they don't recognize who they are talking too is the God of the old testament and the creator of everything.
mankind does not know or has ever dealt with the Father.
now that is the Goal to come to the 8thday when we can deal with the Father who is the most holy which is the most loving.
yes it is true in his manhood Jesus had to totally rely on the Father for his insight, authority and power just like we must do to him now. . and thus Jesus/Jehovah was revealing the fathers heart for mankind by his actions when he was a man .. but their plan for redemption was their plan not just the Father's will.
 
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Colter

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Hello,

I have read the New Testament multiple times, and while reading it most recently the possibility that Jesus Christ may not have had free will came to me.
If God acted through Christ-- who was a human-- to cause a change on Earth, how much of Christ's actions were his own, and what degree of his actions were God's? It seemed that Christ had at times many of the frailties of humans, but at other times the insight and confidence of not just a prophet, but God-incarnate.
There are many different interpretations and conclusions that are arrived at when reading the New Testament, and my current interpretation is that God possessed Christ's body occasionally to effect a change on Earth. This seems to be a violation of the free will that God has instilled in humanity, and an action which is not perfectly good on God's part.
Please help me understand the relationship between God and Christ more.

-Jordan

The spirit of the Father is in all of us, we can do his will or not. God the Son, incarnate as a man, subject to the will of the Father for his incarnate mission.
 
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SkyWriting

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Hello,

I have read the New Testament multiple times, and while reading it most recently the possibility that Jesus Christ may not have had free will came to me.

He did, but He made the choice to always follow His Fathers will.
Being God, only He could manage that, despite than none of us
can do that fully.

8 Philip said to Him, "Lord, show us the Father, and it is enough for us." 9 Jesus said to him, "Have I been so long with you, and yet you have not come to know Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how can you say, 'Show us the Father '?10 "Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father is in Me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on My own initiative, but the Father abiding in Me does His works

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.
 
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Eryk

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If God acted through Christ-- who was a human-- to cause a change on Earth, how much of Christ's actions were his own, and what degree of his actions were God's?
God didn't "possess" Jesus. Jesus is God the Son. His human nature is also part of who he is. The struggles Jesus experienced are not a conflict between these natures. They are an expression of the limits and frailty of his human nature.
 
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juvenissun

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Hello,

I have read the New Testament multiple times, and while reading it most recently the possibility that Jesus Christ may not have had free will came to me.
If God acted through Christ-- who was a human-- to cause a change on Earth, how much of Christ's actions were his own, and what degree of his actions were God's? It seemed that Christ had at times many of the frailties of humans, but at other times the insight and confidence of not just a prophet, but God-incarnate.
There are many different interpretations and conclusions that are arrived at when reading the New Testament, and my current interpretation is that God possessed Christ's body occasionally to effect a change on Earth. This seems to be a violation of the free will that God has instilled in humanity, and an action which is not perfectly good on God's part.
Please help me understand the relationship between God and Christ more.

-Jordan

That IF is wrong.
God does not act "through" Jesus Christ.
Jesus Christ IS God.

This is a fundamental faith in Christianity. I am not surprised that you are confused by it.
 
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oi_antz

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Hello,

I have read the New Testament multiple times, and while reading it most recently the possibility that Jesus Christ may not have had free will came to me.
If God acted through Christ-- who was a human-- to cause a change on Earth, how much of Christ's actions were his own, and what degree of his actions were God's? It seemed that Christ had at times many of the frailties of humans, but at other times the insight and confidence of not just a prophet, but God-incarnate.
There are many different interpretations and conclusions that are arrived at when reading the New Testament, and my current interpretation is that God possessed Christ's body occasionally to effect a change on Earth. This seems to be a violation of the free will that God has instilled in humanity, and an action which is not perfectly good on God's part.
Please help me understand the relationship between God and Christ more.

-Jordan
Philippians 2:6-8

Notice that humans are meant to serve God, even though we are tempted by desires of material nature. So Jesus became that servant of God that we are all meant to be. But it doesn't mean that we all cannot do things that we like. For example when Jesus is walking through the grain fields on Sabbath day. We do not need to think that He had no freedom to choose to do that, or how. What we can see is that there is often a large number of options for us to freely choose to do, that are OK in God's view. We also see, that when we choose to do what He says is not OK, it is somehow against the two laws - love God and love others.

The interesting point for me in what you said wrt this: if God acted through Jesus to cause change on the earth. So what I see of value here, and as the verse quoted also reveals, that rather than saying God acted through Jesus - Jesus acted for Him. Remember what man was made for: to be the image of God. This means that of all creation, man is intended to be the one who creation looks at to observe God's qualities (Jesus knew this John 14:9), and the one who acts on earth for God (Genesis 1:28). Obviously we come to realise that we too are meant to act on earth for God. That must be the sort of understanding St. Paul had when he was writing this, especially in reading verse 5.
 
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com7fy8

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Hi, Jordan :)

I have read the New Testament multiple times, and while reading it most recently the possibility that Jesus Christ may not have had free will came to me.
Free will is a big deal with a lot of people. And there are different ideas and "logic" about this. So, I will offer what I have, but I do not mean to disagree or debate with anyone.

Free will can be an idol of people's egos, of them wanting to make their own choices in separation from God. However, if I can do things apart from God, because I am separate from Him, this is a problem . . . if I am separate from God enough so I can make my own choices.

"But he who is joined to the Lord is one spirit with Him." (1 Corinthians 6:17)

Only in union with God can we live in real love.

But it is good to treat each person like he or she has a free will . . . so we are not trying to control and use people and we are feeling for others. But it is better to be fully controlled and guided by God in His love (Colossians 3:15, 1 Corinthians 16:14), rather than to be my own love-dead puppet.
If God acted through Christ-- who was a human-- to cause a change on Earth, how much of Christ's actions were his own, and what degree of his actions were God's?
Yes, Jesus came to this earth in the flesh, but not only to change this earth. He came to bring us to God in order that God changes us to become like His Son Jesus who is so pleasing to our Father. And this change will last after this earth no longer exists as it is now > Romans 8:20-21, Romans 8:29.

I understand, through John 14:10 and John 10:30, that Jesus and our Father are perfectly one with each other, and Jesus and our Father did all things in perfect oneness with each other. This includes how Jesus on the cross had our Father in Him sharing with Him in the work of reconciling us to Himself >

"that is, that God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, not imputing their trespasses to them, and has committed to us the word of reconciliation." (2 Corinthians 5:19)
It seemed that Christ had at times many of the frailties of humans, but at other times the insight and confidence of not just a prophet, but God-incarnate.
I understand that Jesus had limits for His physical body, but not spiritually >

"For we do not have a High Priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin." (Hebrews 4:15)

So, yes Jesus could feel and go through things we go through, in this life, but He went through it all "without sin". I benefit from how Jesus did not only succeed at not sinning, but Jesus went through all He did so He can now feel for us and help us with how His love and grace made Him able to even suffer and keep on loving, instead of being like a victim. In us, His grace can do the same . . . not only keeping us from doing wrong, but also making us caring for others, and having compassion on others >

even able to help others with God's own grace (1 Peter 4:17) and comfort (2 Corinthians 1:3-4).

By the way, how many humans in their own free wills are choosing to be attentive to doing this??

So, Jesus is not only our High Priest, but also our role model and example of how we all are called to His priesthood, to go through things of this real world, so we can feel for others and minister to them His grace which makes us strong enough in love to succeed in loving, through all things.
There are many different interpretations and conclusions that are arrived at when reading the New Testament, and my current interpretation is that God possessed Christ's body occasionally to effect a change on Earth. This seems to be a violation of the free will that God has instilled in humanity, and an action which is not perfectly good on God's part.
As I offered, "free will" can be a problem. There are people who are free from God, so they can sin. In their separation from God, they do not have His love's grace making them alive to live in love. In sin, a person's character is "dead", in a dead free will which is not good > "you were dead in trespasses and sins", our Apostle Paul himself does say, in Ephesians 2:1. In sin, we were love-dead, and this included how our wills were love-dead, not about to make loving choices. Only the life of God's love through Jesus can make us alive in a living free will capable of choosing loving things to do. We need to become alive in love so we can choose to do loving things. Only God through Jesus can make us alive in real love.

People without God do have free wills, but they are "free in regard to righteousness" > Romans 6:20 > free from God and free from the life of God's love. This is because humans have inherited the sin nature of Adam and Eve. Adam and Eve, in sinning, lost the created freedom of their wills. In sin, people are, as our Apostle Paul does say . . . "slaves of sin" > Romans 6:17, and also in Romans 6:20. This means that in sin, a human does not have the character of God's love, for choosing what is truly good. One can puppet oneself to do certain actions of good, maybe, but this is contaminated by the deeper ego's motives and weakness making the person unable to fight off emotional problems and torments of personality which come because of fears and worry. So, the person is not free, really.

But in God's love, more and more we have true freedom of will > 1 John 4:18 < for just one example, love makes us strong, so fear can not get the better of us. And because we are immune to fear, our personalities mature in being able to not suffer in the various torments of fear and worry. This is truly being free in our wills. Humans without Christ do not have this free will.

But, on a personal level, yes we do make our choices; so we do have "free wills"; we do answer for what we do; there are consequences; we are judged; and we will be judged; the Bible is plain about this. So, in this way every human does have a free will. But does God "honor" our free wills while we sin?

"God resists the proud," we have in James 4:7 and also in 1 Peter 5:5.

Please help me understand the relationship between God and Christ more.
I offered some comments, above, about the oneness of our Father and His Son Jesus.

I'll try to help a little bit more > God our Father and Jesus are spiritually the same, but Their positions differ. In a family, you can have different positions and things and responsibilities but all in the family can be the same in love with each other . . . in a strong and healthy family, "of course". Ones in love can do things as one. Our Father and Jesus and the Holy Spirit are perfectly one with one another, having the exact same spiritual and love nature. So, this is beautifully wonderful, how They are ! ! !

And They desire to share all with us; so God, being "love" (1 John 4:8&16), has sent His very own Son to us, not some second-best being, or lesser blessing. Our Father "is love" (1 John 4:8&16); so He desires to share His very own with us. And He and His Son and the Holy Spirit are always laboring first for this.

And this is our example, how we need to have hope for this for any person, at all. And do whatsoever our Father has us doing to love any person, at all.

God bless you, good to see you :)
 
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hedrick

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There are two perspectives you can look at: Biblical and traditional theology.

From a Biblical perspective things are pretty clear. Jesus is a man. He’s the word made flesh, but a real man. The Gospels show him praying, and being scared of his coming crucifixion. We need to adjust our idea of what it means for the word becoming flesh to match Jesus as we see him. Nowhere does the Bible suggest that Jesus is simply God appearing to be human. John 1 and a couple of places in the letters talk about Christ existing before creation in some sense, although if you look carefully it’s clear that it wasn’t the human that preexisted, and in all of these passages there’s wording to distinguish between the preexistent Christ and his human existence. At any rate, the dominant picture is a human being.

Now, classical theology. Yes, one could get the impression from reading some early authors that the Logos took on a body, but that there wasn’t a real human there. But as the Church thought carefully about it over a few centuries, they moved to correct that impression. One of the later ecumenical councils dealt with exactly this issue of will. And they decided that Christ had a human will and acted as a human, although that human was the same Person as the logos. My sense is that the translation as “Person” can be misleading, since the things that we think of today as constituting a person are actually associated with the humanity, and thus are distinct from the divine nature.

The early church had a vision that God used Christ to bring us together with God. But that only worked because Christ is human. As our brother, we have something in common with him, and he is able to unite us with God. If he’s not human, nothing has changed from the Old Testament or any other religion.

To answer the original question, I think you have to say that all of Christ’s actions were both the actions of a human being and also the actions of God. Although there’s a separate human will, it decides in accordance with God’s will. Does that make it not free? That depends upon what you mean by free, and this is likely to depend upon whether you’re a Calvinist or not. But it’s just like any of us who submit to God, except that he did it all the time.
 
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ViaCrucis

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Hello,

I have read the New Testament multiple times, and while reading it most recently the possibility that Jesus Christ may not have had free will came to me.
If God acted through Christ-- who was a human-- to cause a change on Earth, how much of Christ's actions were his own, and what degree of his actions were God's? It seemed that Christ had at times many of the frailties of humans, but at other times the insight and confidence of not just a prophet, but God-incarnate.
There are many different interpretations and conclusions that are arrived at when reading the New Testament, and my current interpretation is that God possessed Christ's body occasionally to effect a change on Earth. This seems to be a violation of the free will that God has instilled in humanity, and an action which is not perfectly good on God's part.
Please help me understand the relationship between God and Christ more.

-Jordan

If we imagine that Christ, the man, is merely a puppet and God the puppeteer, then we certainly run into all sorts of problems. This is actually quite similar to an ancient heresy known as Cerinthianism, named for a proto-Gnostic teacher named Cerinthus who is said to have lived near the end of the 1st century. According to Cerinthianism the spirit of Christ or the Logos descended upon the man Jesus and possessed or otherwise occupied his body from his baptism until his crucifixion--in other words leaven a very confused man dying on a cross. This was, as one might expect, rejected for all sorts of reasons.

Christological discussion and debate, specifically the interrelationship of divinity and humanity in the person of Jesus, was a major theological driving force in the early centuries of Christianity. The biggest controversy centered over Arius, a presbyter from Alexandria, Egypt. Arius taught that Jesus was the incarnation of a secondary, lesser God created by the Father--this controversy ultimately led to the Councils of Nicea and Constantinople in 325 and 381 respectively. But Christological discussion and debate continued, with the Nestorian controversy resulting in the Council of Ephesus in 431, and the Eutychian controversy resulting in the Council of Chalcedon in 451. At the Council of Chalcedon a solid affirmation of Christology was put forward, primarily to reject the errors of Nestorianism and Eutychianism (which were, effectively, at opposite ends of the spectrum). And here is what they wrote:

"Therefore, following the holy fathers, we all with one accord teach men to acknowledge one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, at once complete in Godhead and complete in manhood, truly God and truly man, consisting also of a reasonable soul and body; of one substance with the Father as regards his Godhead, and at the same time of one substance with us as regards his manhood; like us in all respects, apart from sin; as regards his Godhead, begotten of the Father before the ages, but yet as regards his manhood begotten, for us men and for our salvation, of Mary the Virgin, the God-bearer; one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, Only-begotten, recognized in two natures, without confusion, without change, without division, without separation; the distinction of natures being in no way annulled by the union, but rather the characteristics of each nature being preserved and coming together to form one person and subsistence, not as parted or separated into two persons, but one and the same Son and Only-begotten God the Word, Lord Jesus Christ; even as the prophets from earliest times spoke of him, and our Lord Jesus Christ himself taught us, and the creed of the fathers has handed down to us."

This is why, by the way, historically Christians call the Virgin Mary "mother of God" and "God-bearer" (Greek: Theotokos), because Jesus being truly God, and the child of Mary, makes Mary the mother of God (Jesus).

This basic confession is what Protestant, Eastern Orthodox, and Roman Catholic Christians believe. The Oriental Orthodox do not accept Chalcedon explicitly, but getting into that would be a far more complicated discussion. It is sufficient to say that the Oriental Orthodox use language different than Chalcedon, but both Chalcedonian Christians and non-Chalcedonian Christians are trying to say the same thing, just in different words: Jesus is both fully God and fully human without a confusion or separation of either.

It is also worth noting that this controversy continued for sometime resulting in the second and third councils of Constantinople, this sixth ecumenical council (Constantinople III) specifically dealt with what was known as the Monothelite controversy, Monothelitism (literally "one-will-ism") said that Christ only had a divine will, not a human will. Monothelitism was rejected in favor for Diathelitism, Christ has two wills, one Divine and one human--but Christ is not confused, the two wills are never out of concert.

All of this to really answer the meat of your question: Jesus indeed had--and has--free will; it is out of His will that He freely submitted Himself in obedience to the Father, even to the point of death. He is never like a puppet, but is always fully engaging and willfully accepting the will of the Father. This is what St. Paul is trying to get at in this passage in his letter to the Philippian church:

"Let the same mind be in you that was in Christ Jesus, who though He was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God as something to be exploited, but emptied Himself, taking the form of a slave, being born in human likeness. And being found in human form, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death--even death on a cross." - Philippians 2:5-8

-CryptoLutheran
 
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JohnDaniels

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Hello,

I have read the New Testament multiple times, and while reading it most recently the possibility that Jesus Christ may not have had free will came to me.
If God acted through Christ-- who was a human-- to cause a change on Earth, how much of Christ's actions were his own, and what degree of his actions were God's? It seemed that Christ had at times many of the frailties of humans, but at other times the insight and confidence of not just a prophet, but God-incarnate.
There are many different interpretations and conclusions that are arrived at when reading the New Testament, and my current interpretation is that God possessed Christ's body occasionally to effect a change on Earth. This seems to be a violation of the free will that God has instilled in humanity, and an action which is not perfectly good on God's part.
Please help me understand the relationship between God and Christ more.

-Jordan
Hey Jordan,

It would seem to me that Jesus had free will but did not have all the psychosis that we have that comes with having free will. Jesus worked for God.
 
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Job8

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Hello, I have read the New Testament multiple times, and while reading it most recently the possibility that Jesus Christ may not have had free will came to me.
Since Jesus is God as well as the God-Man, one does not regard Him as simply another human being. "Free will" is applicable to created humans, not to the Creator.

While on earth Christ was always subject to the Father, but always in absolute harmony with the Father. But every decision He made was made as the Son of God, who was (and is) fully Divine and fully and sinlessly human. Once again, we are dealing with the Mystery of God and the Mystery of Godliness.

If you have read the NT multiple times, it may be time to start studying the NT, instead of merely reading it.
 
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com7fy8

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To answer the original question, I think you have to say that all of Christ’s actions were both the actions of a human being and also the actions of God. Although there’s a separate human will, it decides in accordance with God’s will. Does that make it not free? That depends upon what you mean by free, and this is likely to depend upon whether you’re a Calvinist or not. But it’s just like any of us who submit to God, except that he did it all the time.
I would say Jesus is God in the form of a human. So, it is His nature to do exactly all our Father desires. He is in perfect union with our Father all through Him, and He is God to be able to move perfectly with our Father . . . if He is God the Son.

But we humans can not more and more perfectly move with our Father, unless He first transforms us into His nature so we submit in love and humility and kindness and joy. But Jesus "was" already all these, like our Father; so He did not need to be transformed in His nature in order to be able to obey . . . if He is and was God, also.

I believe and trust that indeed Jesus is God the Son; because "God is love" (1 John 4:8&16) and love gives its best. God sent His very own best, His own Son, not only a transformed second-best being with some second-best blessing and benefit. We have, also, the Holy Spirit, who is the Spirit of God's very own love "in our hearts" (Romans 5:5) . . . no second-best anything or anyone! :)

All of this to really answer the meat of your question: Jesus indeed had--and has--free will; it is out of His will that He freely submitted Himself in obedience to the Father, even to the point of death. He is never like a puppet, but is always fully engaging and willfully accepting the will of the Father. This is what St. Paul is trying to get at in this passage in his letter to the Philippian church:

"Let the same mind be in you that was in Christ Jesus, who though He was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God as something to be exploited, but emptied Himself, taking the form of a slave, being born in human likeness. And being found in human form, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death--even death on a cross." - Philippians 2:5-8
So, yes Jesus is fully alive, not some puppet. He is alive in all the nature and life of our Father, fully capable of perfectly submitting to our Father, out of His own nature submissive and humble of love. So, They in perfect union of oneness with one another can move together >

"God was in Christ, reconciling the world to Himself" (in 2 Corinthians 5:19) > They were in perfect oneness, on the cross > God our Father in Jesus, together doing the reconciling, I see from this.

So, Jesus had the nature of His own self, to be submissive perfectly to how our Father worked in Jesus (John 14:10); all He did on Calvary was in perfect union with our Father, sharing, Jesus sweetly pleasing our Father, "for a sweet-smelling aroma." (Ephesians 5:2)

But we humans do not have the nature to so perfectly submit to and sweetly please our Father. We need first how the Holy Spirit transforms us so we become submissive in the "divine nature" (2 Peter 2:4 with Hebrews 12:4-11, 1 Peter 3:4). So, about Hedrick's thing about if one is a "Calvinist" or not > we are not "sufficient of ourselves to think of anything as being from ourselves, but our sufficiency is from God" (in 2 Corinthians 3:5). This goes for us Christians who are not totally depraved. We are totally dependent!

I can be submissive to our Father, how He rules us in His peace (Colossians 3:15), because Jesus is growing in us (Galatians 4:19), with each of us being "one spirit with Him" (1 Corinthians 6:17), so that He in each of us shares His ability to be perfectly submissive to our Father in the love sharing and relating which He enjoys with our Father . . . so that our Father can make Himself at home in us :) Jesus in us makes our wills free to be able to do this, because of sharing with Him in His ability to submit to our Father in His love > 1 John 4:17.

It could be like how two lovers dance in one another's arms. The man may lead, but the lady has the nature and ability to perfectly move along with his lead. She is very active and energetic to be in "submission" :)

But we with our Groom can not move with Him unless He first in us changes us to be one with Him in His nature with His energy to actively flow with Him. The Holy Spirit is in union with us to have us doing this, actively. No way can we, on our own in our creature free wills, at each moment keep track of how our Father would move us, at each moment! But Jesus makes our wills "free indeed" (John 8:36) so we more and more grow to succeed in this.
 
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Neogaia777

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Hello,

I have read the New Testament multiple times, and while reading it most recently the possibility that Jesus Christ may not have had free will came to me.
If God acted through Christ-- who was a human-- to cause a change on Earth, how much of Christ's actions were his own, and what degree of his actions were God's? It seemed that Christ had at times many of the frailties of humans, but at other times the insight and confidence of not just a prophet, but God-incarnate.
There are many different interpretations and conclusions that are arrived at when reading the New Testament, and my current interpretation is that God possessed Christ's body occasionally to effect a change on Earth. This seems to be a violation of the free will that God has instilled in humanity, and an action which is not perfectly good on God's part.
Please help me understand the relationship between God and Christ more.

-Jordan

Except Christ, had a free-will and he chose to use that free-will for his (Jesus) will might become one with the Father's will, and this happened at his baptism...

God Bless!
 
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ViaCrucis

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Except Christ, had a free-will and he chose to use that free-will for his (Jesus) will might become one with the Father's will, and this happened at his baptism...

God Bless!

The Lord's will has always been in unison with the Father's will; both as God from all eternity as the Son, and as man in the Incarnation. The human and divine wills of Christ are always, and have always, been in harmony with the will of the Father; as the Lord Himself teaches regularly through John's Gospel.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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GregoryTheNonTheologian

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If God acted through Christ-- who was a human-- to cause a change on Earth, how much of Christ's actions were his own, and what degree of his actions were God's?

The Lord also said Verily I say unto you, If ye have faith as a grain of mustard seed, ye shall say unto this mountain, Remove hence to yonder place; and it shall remove; and nothing shall be impossible unto you (Matthew 17:20); and Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works than these shall he do (John 14:12)

Jesus performed His miracles as a man, like us. Any miracle He performed on earth, we would also be able to do if we had enough faith.
 
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oi_antz

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The Lord's will has always been in unison with the Father's will; both as God from all eternity as the Son, and as man in the Incarnation. The human and divine wills of Christ are always, and have always, been in harmony with the will of the Father; as the Lord Himself teaches regularly through John's Gospel.

-CryptoLutheran
I view this as being by willing agreement, and the standard to which we are encouraged to aspire (Philippians 2:5). Although Jesus had physical desires of a human (ego, pleasure), those desires could not produce temptation enough to overpower the natural love and wisdom that were so fully manifested in Him; so by enduring to perfectly offer His life to God's service, to the greatest extent possible, He proved that He is indeed qualified to lead the world according to God's will. Subsequently all authority on heaven and earth was handed to Him, a human being, (notice too, this must be given willingly by those who serve Him), because not once did He ever act contrary to God's will. This is not me saying that Jesus' will is literally Jehovah's will, but that they always have agreement as we are also called to do.
 
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oi_antz

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Jesus performed His miracles as a man, like us. Any miracle He performed on earth, we would also be able to do if we had enough faith.
He did not move mountains to the sea though, did He? I suggest that the faith described, is the acting of the faithful in harmony with God's will. "Whatever we ask for in His name, we will receive". James 4:2-3 is relevant too, because one asking in Jesus' name for something contrary to God's will, is not asking in perfect faith!
 
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