pat34lee
Messianic
With or without the phrase it still means the same thing.
...and no, it wasn't "added by anti-law Christians"...if you think it was, please provide their names, the exact date that the addition allegedly occurred and explain why there was no outcry or even passing comment about such tampering with the Word- and then explain why God would allow it.
However, if you are sensible and wish to retract the comment as mere hyperbole and simply and calmly state that there is a textual variant that really has no theological bearing on the text than that would be a far more credible statement.
"Again consider the context, but in this case the social context. This discussion took place in a social and historical context different than our own. Language and practice were based on the Word of God. For instance, their holidays were those days set apart in the Bible for special observance, not ours. Their property rights were those of the Bible, not ours. Likewise, only those things that are not taw-may ("defiled", "unclean") were considered food, everything else was not. Reading Mark 7:19 as they would have, it means,
"Thus He declared all things-given-by- God-as food to be clean, regardless of ritual hand washing."
For the sake of clarity, these translators insert a phrase that never appears in the Greek: "Thus He declared."
http://jesusisajew.org/Short/MK7V19.php
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