This is the most egregious logical extension to an argument that I have been subjected to in a very long time
How so? If it is necessary to be able to make use of doctor assisted suicide in order to have control over one's body, would that not mean that everyone should be able to make use of doctor assisted suicide?
If I am wrong in thinking this, where is the mistake? I am assuming for the sake of argument that making use of doctor assisted suicide relates to control over one's body, since you seemed to suggest this. If this was not what you were suggesting, let me know. But if that is granted, to say that not everyone should be allowed to make use of doctor assisted suicide would seem to suggest that not everyone has full control over their body, and if it is important to have control over your body, this would be unacceptable. However you say that this conclusion is not only wrong but ridiculous.
So it seems to me that the confusion must be in what you meant by "this is about someone's control over their own health and body." I would greatly appreciate you expanding what you mean by this and how it relates to this law.
Your original post didn't say "possible" it says "always".
It's the "always" to which I took exception. Using the word "possible" would have changed the entire meaning of the post.
If only certain types of laws must have certain properties, then that type of laws will always have those properties. I say that it was clear that I was talking about all possible laws, because I talked in a universal sense without any exceptions. If I meant to talk only about a specific law I would have said so, and if I meant to talk about only the laws currently on the books I would have said that.
But perhaps I was not clear enough and for that I apologize.
Your point number 2 goes way further than that. Your claim in point 2 is some third party is making value judgements on the one person's life over another. This is not the case in death with dignity laws generally and certain not in this case.
The person making a decision the the person requesting the service.
Further your assertion that somehow because a person at end of life has this option while an person not in end of life doesn't is creating a situation the places value of one life over another seem to me to be rather disingenuous on it's face.
Let's imagine a situation in which some new surgery is discovered which will extend the life of those who use it by an average of 20 years. A law is written which allows this procedure to be used, but only by men of age 30 or less. No explanation in the law is given for why this restriction would be made, and the procedure is equally viable on all people regardless of sex or age. The procedure is not required of young men, only made available to them.
In such a case, would you say that no value judgements have been made?
People at end of life are going die. Soon. Hence the name "end of life". How long the process will take and in what state one should live the short time one has left should be a matter of healthcare decisions by the person in end of life. This is the intent of these laws.
Any further logical extension (something you're very good at) is just assuming things not in evidence.
This may come as a shock to you, but life has a fatality rate of 100%. Each and every one of us is going to die at some point in the future, and we are all at "the end of our lives." It is only a matter of degree. What makes six months to death so special? You should especially consider that many people who are told that they have six months to live will outlast that prediction, and many people who are told to expect decades of life will die of a heart attack anyway. So what non-arbitrary reason is there to say that if a doctor tells you that you have six months to live then you can ask him to kill you, but if he tells you that you have a year to live you cannot? Or even if he tells you that you have twenty more to live?
Beyond all that, how does the proximity of death justify suicide in any sense? Sometimes people try to justify it by reducing suffering, but it is possible to be terminally ill and be suffering in a small degree, and it is also possible to have a long life expectancy and yet be in constant pain?
You say that we should not speculate beyond what the law says. But if that is the case, your answer to these questions must be "it is acceptable to request suicide when you have six months to live and not if you have more to live
because that's when the law says that you can request suicide." That is, if we cannot go beyond the law we cannot justify the existence of the law, and we are forced to submit to the law simply because that is what the law says to do.
I'm not going to address your next few statements because they are all variations on "the law is what it is because that's what it says." But I do want to address this:
we all die. Medicine has made that an uncertain experience. At the moment people should have options. Giving options is what this is all about.
You have said yourself that we all die! Not just that terminally ill people die, but all of us. But you also say that it is absurd to think that if the terminally ill should be allowed to be assisted in suicide because they are going to die and they should have control over how they die, then all of us should be allowed to be assisted in suicide because we all are going to die and we all should have control over how we die.
You seem to reconcile this by saying that since the law doesn't say anything about the non-terminally ill being assisted in suicide that it is absurd to discuss such matters or to suggest that there is any reason why the terminally ill are allowed to be killed (at their request) while the healthy are not. But it isn't as though this law is some divine command which has been here since the beginning of time and which we dare not question. It hasn't even
been a law for very long at all. If the only defense of the law's restriction of assisted suicide to the terminally ill is that that is what is in the law, how could the law be passed in the first place? It certainly couldn't be justified by referencing itself as a law before it was law.
Look, laws are created for reasons and have consequences after they are passed. They are much more than the text which is written. If laws have any justification or meaning at all, we need to be able to discuss the
intentions which led to them being passed, whether their implementation is
consistent with those intentions, and
what effect they will have beyond their intended purpose. If we do not do that we are only able to say "well the law is the law because it is the law."