Creation and exegesis

themuzicman

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The Tablet Theory of Genesis Authorship

I think that probably Moses compiled all these tablets into one long record, scroll, or book during the 40-year wilderness experience, described in Exodus and Numbers.

This guy is clueless. The Torah is 5 scrolls, and what happened during the 40 year wilderness includes Leviticus. I'm unclear to to whether this guy has actually read the Torah, much less knows anything about it.

If he wants any credibility, he should probably do some study of what he's talking about first.
 
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KWCrazy

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Yet I thought the YEC view is right there with flat earth?
There is not A SINGLE passage in the Bible that speaks of a flat earth, and references such as Job where it says the earth is hung upon nothing. Your statement is lible.
That would make YEC science no science at all. In fact YEC is often refereed to as 'pseudo science' or even more commonly 'junk science.'
Religion is not science. Since YEC is based on the KNOWLEDGE that the Bible is the word of God, it's the closest religious affiliation with what the Scriptures teach.
At the very least YEC science is vastly different from other science that supports a much older earth, universe, etc.
I think you mean Creation Science. There is no such thing as YEC science. And yes, Genesis is every bit as literal as Matthew, Mark, Luke or John.
 
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themuzicman

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There is not A SINGLE passage in the Bible that speaks of a flat earth, and references such as Job where it says the earth is hung upon nothing. Your statement is lible.

Isa 40:22. The "circle" there refers to a disk, not a sphere.
 
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Calminian

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Sounds like you've regressed into ad hominem mode. You started out so reasonable. I thought this was actually going to be pretty good thread. Well, let's see if I can resurrect it a bit.

Don't know much about them, but if they're like other things I've seen/heard from AiG, they'll support whatever they think gives them an answer.

That accusation is interesting, as it seems that's the route you've taken to support your own conclusions. You have to fight the idea of Moses working with prior materials as it undermines your OP. Your whole premise rests on Genesis being a product of ANE culture, and of Moses adhering to the cosmologies of his time. If that's not true, all your premises crumble.

But this is actually the point Henry Morris made in his commentary. There really is no example at all of a biblical writer getting a historical account via direct revelation from God. Did Luke compose Acts or his Gospel by merely sitting and having God dictate it to him? No serious bible student believes this.

Your theory of receiving narratives from direct revelation is actually a very radical idea that neither the church nor jewish tradition has ever embraced (at least to my knowledge). But then again, to support your OP, you really have no choice.

But no evidence that anyone in Scripture wrote them. I do think that Moses penned the Torah (said this before, which is why your comment about JEPD is silly), as has been believed by the church for a few thousand years.

Which the tablet theory completely supports. But you are arguing he received the entire Torah via direct revelation. Even the historical narratives in the Torah of Moses' life are were not received via direct revelation. Only the law and building instructions for the tabernacle were. He was a contemporary of the narratives that happened during his life, and was either an eyewitness or had access to eyewitnesses.

You're actually proposing a quite a radical idea with no precedence. I'm still waiting for you explain how that works.

OTOH, the idea that the "waters above" are the source of RAIN makes perfect sense. And that's exactly what "the expanse and separated the waters that were under the expanse from the waters that were above the expanse."

The ancients knew rain came from clouds that were in the heavens (not above the heavens). You see none of this fits with Genesis 1. The waters above the heavens are above the sun moon and stars according to Genesis. They are above the expanse (firmament) according to verses 6-8, and thus above the heavens.

Gen. 1:8 And God called the firmament Heaven.​

BTW, a Psalmist agrees with me.

Psa. 148:4 Praise Him, you heavens of heavens,
And you waters above the heavens!

Now the Psalmist knew full well that rain was from clouds that were in the heavens. Yet he spoke of waters that were above the heavens and all that was in them. This means he read the passage of Gen. 1:6-8 just like I read them. These original waters that God divided and separated by the heavens are still up there, beyond the stars. That's what the Psalmist indicated. That's what Gen. 1 implies.

It's also interesting that, at no point has scripture ever linked these waters of Gen. 1 to rain. Rain is always linked to clouds. These waters on the other hand, have always been linked to the creation process. Peter for instance said,

2Pet. 3:5 But they deliberately forget that long ago by God’s word the heavens existed and the earth was formed out of water and by water.​

This is a direct reference to those waters of Gen. 1.

And, in case you missed it, the seas weren't created on day 2.

No, the expansion of the heavens was on day 2. The sea was formed the day after. That's day 3, not day 2.

I guess then you actually believe the firmament was formed on day 1?? You really haven't read Genesis have you.

So, what we see is that the land was under the water, .....

But according to Genesis, the land was formless and void. Or to put it another way, unformed and unfilled. If the land was merely submerged, then it was already formed and you're again at odds with the text.

Then again, you believe the firmament was created on day 1. :doh:

In all seriousness, if you could just get out of ad hom mode for a bit, I think there could actually be a profitable discussion here. I've seen your posts over the years. You're not a dumb guy. I'm just asking you to hear out the YEC side for a time. You may still disagree, but you'll understand it better.
 
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Calminian

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Isa 40:22. The "circle" there refers to a disk, not a sphere.

Actually the word is huwg (with a hard h) in the hebrew. It refers to the horizon (KM Hebrew Dictionary).

Look at its use in Job.

Job 22:14 Thick clouds veil him, so he does not see us
as he goes about in the vaulted heavens.’

or look at this Proverb.

Prov. 8:27 I was there when he set the heavens in place,
when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,​

I can't stress enough how important it is to look at usage of words in scripture and their context. When you do, you'll find disc is simply not a possibility.

KWC is right, though, there are no flat earth passages in scripture. When you let scripture define its own terms, the whole concept becomes impossible.

It's hard to believe you're proposing this. I know you are a christian and believe scripture. I'm curious how people fall into this mode where they propose such things. Do you have such little faith in God's ability to communicate?
 
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pshun2404

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Isa 40:22. The "circle" there refers to a disk, not a sphere.

Does it mean a flat disc? No! It just means round, circle, circuit, compass...Gesenius Hebrew Grammar translates it Circle, Sphere, Arch, vault...and so on. Also the four corners do not mean literal corners any more than when we say the same thing regarding the four cardinal directions N,E,S, and west...


Paul
 
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themuzicman

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Actually the word is huwg (with a hard h) in the hebrew. It refers to the horizon (KM Hebrew Dictionary).

Look at its use in Job.
Job 22:14 Thick clouds veil him, so he does not see us
as he goes about in the vaulted heavens.’
or look at this Proverb.

Prov. 8:27 I was there when he set the heavens in place,
when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,​

I can't stress enough how important it is to look at usage of words in scripture and their context. When you do, you'll find disc is simply not a possibility.

You really ought to take a language course before trying to stress this. Words mean in context. Especially Hebrew words. In fact,forcing the meaning of a word into another context is a fallacy.

And, if you look at the world through ANE eyes, the horizon IS a disk. It is a flat circle that surrounds us. So, even using your own flawed method, we can see that the word means a disk.

And in the Hebrew lexicon, that's what "חוג" actually means: Something shaped like a circle.

So, when we do a proper job of using a lexicon, we see that Isaiah calls the earth a disk.

KWC is right, though, there are no flat earth passages in scripture. When you let scripture define its own terms, the whole concept becomes impossible.

When you let the Hebrew language be the basis of finding meaning rather than invalidly importing context from one verse to another, we get an accurate meaning.

It's hard to believe you're proposing this. I know you are a christian and believe scripture. I'm curious how people fall into this mode where they propose such things. Do you have such little faith in God's ability to communicate?

Actually, I have great faith in God's ability to communicate. What I have little faith in is the human's ability to set aside his own agenda and listen to what God has actually said.
 
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themuzicman

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Does it mean a flat disc? No! It just means round, circle, circuit, compass...Gesenius Hebrew Grammar translates it Circle, Sphere, Arch, vault...and so on. Also the four corners do not mean literal corners any more than when we say the same thing regarding the four cardinal directions N,E,S, and west...

The lexical definition is something shaped like a circle. (My source is actually Dr. Walton, whose Ph.D. is in Hebrew and Cognate Studies. He knows the language. And he says that Isa 40:22 refers to a disk, not a sphere. There's another word for that.)
 
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miamited

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The lexical definition is something shaped like a circle. (My source is actually Dr. Walton, whose Ph.D. is in Hebrew and Cognate Studies. He knows the language. And he says that Isa 40:22 refers to a disk, not a sphere. There's another word for that.)

Gosh muzicman,

Every time I look at pictures of the earth from the vantage of space, which is how God would see it, it looks like a circle to me. I believe that it is your own forced definition that then defines 'circle' as a 'disk'. Geometrically speaking, the earth is made up of an infinite number of circles that would be described as you say.

God bless you.
IN Christ, Ted
 
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Calminian

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You really ought to take a language course before trying to stress this. Words mean in context. Especially Hebrew words. In fact,forcing the meaning of a word into another context is a fallacy.

Who was forcing. The meaning is quite clear. This circle, vault, etc, is consistently spoken of in the few times it appears in scripture. God sits above it looking down at the earth in the Is. passage you cite.

And, if you look at the world through ANE eyes, the horizon IS a disk.

That's your argument? First you assume that Isaiah agreed with contemporary cosmologies and disagreed with what the Torah had to say about origins. Then you want to ignore the uses of the word in the rest of the Bible?

And in the Hebrew lexicon, that's what "חוג" actually means: Something shaped like a circle.

Yes circle as in horizon as in vault. Are you really this attached to the Bible teaching a flat earth?

So, when we do a proper job of using a lexicon, we see that Isaiah calls the earth a disk.

So Job believed the heavens were a flat disc? Really?

Actually, I have great faith in God's ability to communicate. What I have little faith in is the human's ability to set aside his own agenda and listen to what God has actually said.

Well, if God told you heaven was a flat disc it's hard to argue with that. But we're focusing on what scripture says.

YEC's take scripture at face value. I showed you the word, and its definition and its usage. The usage of huwg in all of scripture is virtually identical and has to do with the horizon/vault that surrounds the land & sea. This is the usage seen in Is. Job and prov.

What is it you think you've shown us?

Oh and one other thing. The particle linked to the construction noun "circle" is al, which means upon over above. What we seem to have is God sitting on the horizon that incircles the earth, looking down on the people that are like grasshoppers.

That's consistent with all other usages of the word.
 
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themuzicman

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That accusation is interesting, as it seems that's the route you've taken to support your own conclusions. You have to fight the idea of Moses working with prior materials as it undermines your OP. Your whole premise rests on Genesis being a product of ANE culture, and of Moses adhering to the cosmologies of his time. If that's not true, all your premises crumble.

No, my premise doesn't rest on that at all. That's just you trying to force me into your pigeonhole.

The WRITING of Genesis is a product of ANE culture, and I'm sure Moses had a variety of sources from which to draw in order to write. But Moses wasn't a compiler. He wrote Genesis. And, in case you weren't aware, no one was around until day 6 to write anything down.0

But this is actually the point Henry Morris made in his commentary. There really is no example at all of a biblical writer getting a historical account via direct revelation from God. Did Luke compose Acts or his Gospel by merely sitting and having God dictate it to him? No serious bible student believes this.

And no one here believes this, either. However, you've created a false dichotomy in assuming that either Moses got direct revelation from God, or he MUST be compiling other writings which come from the times in which these things happen. These are not the only possibilities. Especially with Genesis 1 and 2. What is most likely from the time period we're talking about is that Moses is writing a narrative history from a variety of sources under God's guidance that is written such that someone in an ANE culture will comprehend it. Thus, we have a reflection of ANE culture and understanding (including cosmic geography) about events that occurred previous to that time.

And that's the most logical conclusion.

BTW, Luke does the same thing. He takes what happened in a Jewish context and writes a narrative for a Gentile/Greek mind. That's why the order of Luke is different than Matthew.

Your theory of receiving narratives from direct revelation is actually a very radical idea that neither the church nor jewish tradition has ever embraced (at least to my knowledge). But then again, to support your OP, you really have no choice.

This is false. If you repeat it again, you will be lying. You've been trying to impose this upon me from your first reply, and it will not stand.

I expect you to repeat that I do NOT BELIEVE that narratives came from direct revelation, AND I do NOT BELIEVE that Moses was a compiler.

Which the tablet theory completely supports.

You cannot prove a theory just because it appears to fit your own construction.


The ancients knew rain came from clouds that were in the heavens (not above the heavens). You see none of this fits with Genesis 1.

Wow.. your ability to nit pick is legendary. The ANE didn't know how the water got into the sky except to say that it was made of water. Yes, they knew that when clouds formed the rains may be coming. But the source of the water from the clouds was the sky.

Unless, of course, you can show that before the ANE they knew how evaporation formed clouds.

The waters above the heavens are above the sun moon and stars according to Genesis. They are above the expanse (firmament) according to verses 6-8, and thus above the heavens.

Gen. 1:8 And God called the firmament Heaven.​

BTW, a Psalmist agrees with me.
Psa. 148:4 Praise Him, you heavens of heavens,
And you waters above the heavens!
Now the Psalmist knew full well that rain was from clouds that were in the heavens. Yet he spoke of waters that were above the heavens and all that was in them. This means he read the passage of Gen. 1:6-8 just like I read them. These original waters that God divided and separated by the heavens are still up there, beyond the stars. That's what the Psalmist indicated. That's what Gen. 1 implies.

Wow... you really like to impose a modern view of science on the text of Scripture at the expense of Scripture, don't you...

6 And God said, “Let there be an expanse in the midst of the waters, and let it separate the waters from the waters.” 7 And God made the expanse and separated the waters that were under the expanse from the waters that were above the expanse. And it was so. 8 And God called the expanse Heaven.

Separate the waters from the waters... the waters that were under the expanse from the waters that were above the expanse. The sky is water and it is called "heaven."

And this fits perfectly with the ANE view of the universe AND with your Psalmist. And you are left out in the cold.

It's also interesting that, at no point has scripture ever linked these waters of Gen. 1 to rain. Rain is always linked to clouds.

Ummm.. The clouds are in the heavens... Genesis calls the heavens "water." And if we take off the blinders and look at how the ANE viewed the sky as water and the clouds as part of the sky, we see that the sky is the source of rain via the clouds.

So, once again, once we remove your modern scientific imposition on the ANE, we see that you're wrong.

These waters on the other hand, have always been linked to the creation process. Peter for instance said,

2Pet. 3:5 But they deliberately forget that long ago by God’s word the heavens existed and the earth was formed out of water and by water.​

This is a direct reference to those waters of Gen. 1.

From which water above was separated from water below.

No, the expanse of the heavens was on day 2. The sea was formed the day after. That's day 3, not day 2.

If you'll notice, the waters exists before day 3 begins. God only takes the waters below and separates them so that the dry land can appear.

Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place, and let the dry land appear.

No creating going on here. Just a little organization. Water (that was separated yesterday) goes over there, land appears. So, once again, the text proves you wrong. (To be clear "gathered together into once place" is not equal to "formed.")

I guess then you actually believe the firmament was formed on day 1?? You really haven't read Genesis have you.

Given what I just quoted, it's pretty clear you haven't. Or can't.

But according to Genesis, the land was formless and void. Or to put it another way, unformed and unfilled. If the land was merely submerged, then it was already formed and you're gain at odds with the text.

Gee, I didn't say that the land wasn't formed, now, did I? Once again, you're building a straw man because you can't actually dispute what I've said.

Then again, you believe the firmament was created on day 1. :doh:

Well, what does day 3 day about the land? Created? Or appeared? You're so big on what the bible actually says... READ IT:

Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place, and let the dry land appear.

Oops.

In all seriousness, if you could just get out of ad hom mode for a bit, I think there could actually be a profitable discussion here.

If you'd address my posts rather than building straw men and pigeonholing me, it would be profitable.

I've seen your posts over the years. You're not a dumb guy. I'm just asking you to hear out the YEC side for a time. You may still disagree, but you'll understand it better.

I've heard out the YEC all my life. I was raised with it. I understand it quite well. The tablet theory is something new to me, but after reading about it, I see a lot of conjecture and very little evidence.

And this isn't to say that I know that the earth is or isn't a particular age. But what science needs to do is discover what the evidence says, not look for the conclusion we want to reach. If scientific discovery apart from searching to prove Genesis from science discovers that the world is young, great. Then I'll be a YEC.

But given the comparative studies showing that the writing of Genesis reflects an ANE cultural view of the past (to them), I don't think we can use Genesis as a modern science book. It is inerrant? Yes, with respect to the issues it intends to speak to. It just isn't clear that Genesis 1 is intended to speak to a scientific, physical manifestation of creation.
 
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Calminian

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...The WRITING of Genesis is a product of ANE culture, and I'm sure Moses had a variety of sources from which to draw in order to write. But Moses wasn't a compiler. He wrote Genesis. And, in case you weren't aware, no one was around until day 6 to write anything down.

Okay so let me agree that Moses wrote Genesis. He compiled it, edited it, translate it, redacted it, etc. He would have been very qualified to do so given his background.

I nor Henry Morris, nor ICR nor AiG disagrees Moses wrote Genesis and the rest of the Torah, save the sections he couldn't have. I'm merely proposing he worked with prior documents that bear the names of their owners.

Now you admit Moses drew on a variety of sources, prior writings etc.

Let me use that as an opportunity to show you some of the internal evidence that Moses compiled from previous writings. Look at some of the tenses used in Genesis, for instance. In describing the land of Havilah,

11 The name of the first is Pishon; it is the one which skirts the whole land of Havilah, where there is gold. 12 (The gold of that land is good; aromatic resin and onyx are also there.)

Now if there was a Flood as Moses believed, this land was destroyed. Yet Genesis says there is currently gold there. Who is speaking? Did Moses believe this land still existed and was still rich in gold?

Of course not. This had to have been originally written by an antediluvian who existed at that time. Interestingly we find this toledoth signature in Gen. 5:1.

This is the written account of Adam’s line.

To get a little technical here, both seypher (book), toledoth (accounts) are in construct chain of the absolute proper name, Adam. IOW's the book and the toledoth were both properties of Adam. Literally, "This [is] [the] book of [the] accounts of Adam."

That alone should convince you writing existed before the flood, and that Adam wrote this section spanning Gen. 2:5 to 5:1a.

In fact Adam, living over 900 years, would have been a contemporary to all those events, from the creation of the Garden, to the birth of Seth (and of Cain's descendants down to the sons of Lamech).

That's also a consistency we see in all the toledoth of Genesis. Whenever we come across one, the person named never dies prior to the accounts being recorded. Just another fascinating component of the theory.

And no one here believes this, either. However, you've created a false dichotomy in assuming that either Moses got direct revelation from God, or he MUST be compiling other writings which come from the times in which these things happen. These are not the only possibilities. Especially with Genesis 1 and 2. What is most likely from the time period we're talking about is that Moses is writing a narrative history from a variety of sources under God's guidance that is written such that someone in an ANE culture will comprehend it. Thus, we have a reflection of ANE culture and understanding (including cosmic geography) about events that occurred previous to that time.

Okay, fair enough. But this is in essence all the tablet theory and others suggest. But you're throwing in that Moses must have then reinterpreted these accounts with a contemporary ANE spin. But why do you think this was necessary? What's so hard to understand about a 6 day creation? It's really a simple concept that even the youngest of children can understand.

Ex. 20:11 For in six days the LORD made the heavens and the earth,a the sea, and all that is in them,​

That's pretty straightforward, and agrees with a very straightforward reading of Gen. 1.

BTW, Luke does the same thing. He takes what happened in a Jewish context and writes a narrative for a Gentile/Greek mind.

Yes, but he didn't couch it in Greek mythology or greek understandings of origins. Luke explained hebrew concepts (from his jewish sources) to the Greeks and others with no problems whatsoever. Why couldn't Moses do the same and explain a six day creation to the Israelites? They understood the concept of days, and understood the concept of creation and miracles. In fact, if it's true what you say, that he drew on other sources, his audience would have already understood these ancient concepts.

Deut. 32:7 Remember the days of old;
consider the generations long past.
Ask your father and he will tell you,
your elders, and they will explain to you.​
(credit to Chet on that passage)

The Israelites already were familiar with their history. They already were at odds with mythological cosmologies. Do you not realize the Godly patriarch Joseph was barely a couple generations removed from them? The elders at that time, had parents that likely knew Joseph.

Wow.. your ability to nit pick is legendary. The ANE didn't know how the water got into the sky except to say that it was made of water. Yes, they knew that when clouds formed the rains may be coming. But the source of the water from the clouds was the sky.

Oh I agree, and believe their understanding was even beyond that! I think they understood the hydrological cycle to a great degree.

Job 36:27 For He draws up drops of water,
Which distill as rain from the mist,
28 Which the clouds drop down
And pour abundantly on man.

Eccl. 1:6 The wind goes toward the south,
And turns around to the north;
The wind whirls about continually,
And comes again on its circuit.
7 All the rivers run into the sea,
Yet the sea is not full;
To the place from which the rivers come,
There they return again.​

But again, the waters of Gen. 1 and according to the Psalmist were above the sky (shamayim) the heavens. There's no escaping this.

What I'm saying is, the waters of Gen. 1 were never associated with rain and clouds. They were rather associated with the creation and formation of the land and sea.

Genesis calls the heavens "water."

No, I'm sorry, you have never read this in the Bible. The heavens divided the waters. This is precisely why ANE can't be the source of scripture. In ANE cosmology, there is a barrier that divides heaven and earth. In the Bible, heaven is an expanse dividing the waters above from the waters below which eventually were used to form the earth. In ANE a barrier a firmament divides earth from heaven. In Genesis the firmament is the same as the heavens—the heavens which hosts the clouds and the birds and the sun moon and stars.

This is why the Psalmist had to be speaking of the creation waters of Gen. 1. Only those are above the heavens. Clouds are in the heavens.

ANE solid dome cosmology simply can't be forced upon Scripture. JP Holding wrote a good article on this in response to Paul Seely.

Is the Raqiya‘ (‘Firmament’) a Solid Dome?

He refutes Seely on the specific point above. Again, I can only lead you to water (yeah, a bit of a pun).

What I'm hoping is, you'll actually learn some good YEC teachings. It appears you were steeped in straw men and therefore rejected it. Sounds like you have actually never heard of any good reputable creationists prior to this. I mean if you had never heard of Henry Morris, you never were a YEC in any serious sense (some may dispute that, but I've never actually meet a YEC that didn't know who he was). Hopefully you at least have enough here now to make an informed decision.
 
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elopez

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For those who are trying to prove Genesis using science, yes. For those who are simply doing science and discovering a young earth, no.
There is no valid science that confirms a young earth. All of it can be falsified, and has various times.

You can call them that if you want to. I prefer to let scientists discover the physical world without agenda. If there are creationists who are simply observing the scientific evidence and concluding that the earth is young, that that's perfectly valid.
There is no physical evidence that is observable that points to a young earth of what YEC claims. They might say there is, but that doesn't mean it's valid.

Unless, as you claim ALL young earth scientists have the agenda of proving that Genesis 1 is science.
I know a lot of YECs who claim Genesis 1 is the foundation for their creation science.

Never said it wasn't literal. Apparently y'all can't stay away from straw men.
In order for my statement to be a straw man I would have to be arguing against something you've said. I'm more asking what you think in detail. If anything, people are probably misrepresenting your position because you have failed to adequately describe it in the OP, which is why I was asking a question about it, not making something up and arguing against it.
 
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elopez

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There is not A SINGLE passage in the Bible that speaks of a flat earth, and references such as Job where it says the earth is hung upon nothing. Your statement is lible.
Now this is a perfect example of a straw man. I would suggest paying attention to what people are actually saying if you're going to reply to someone. I have not said that there is a passage in the Bible that states the earth is flat. Though, I was implying that flat earthism was held by many early church leaders, such as Theophilus of Antioch, Irenaeus, Tertullian, Methodius, Theodore of Mopsuestia, just to name a few.

Again, I have not said religion is science. Try responding to something I actually did say. Obviously religion is not science. I am a TE and I think the Bible is the word of God. That has nothing to do with origin theology really.

YEC science, creation science, junk science, same thing. Just labels to describe the same concept. I would go as far as saying Genesis is historical.
 
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Good topic.

There's a big problem right off the bat. Genesis pre-dates ANE culture!

This is the mistake I think most old-agers make (IMHO). They assume the Genesis toledoth had their start at Moses' time or later.
More a conclusion based on the evidence rather than an assumption surely?

Genesis is a compilation of older writings, put together by Moses but not originating with Moses. He was possibly translator, redactor, editor and compiler (definitely the last one).
The evidence definitely shows us Genesis was compiled from earlier sources and shows evidence of an editor, but there is nothing to suggest Moses was the compiler.

There are several toledoth statements in Genesis showing the authors to be Adam, Noah, Noah's sons, Shem, Isaac and Jabob. There are other unnamed toledoth, such as in the table of nations and in the initial creation account. The account of Joseph's life doesn't have a toledoth subscript, perhaps because that was not normative in Egyptian writing methods.

Now if Henry Morris and the staff at ICR and AiG are correct, all of Genesis is pre-ANE culture, and even pre-diluvian (antediluvian) in its earliest accounts.

Therefore, applying ANE culture and beliefs is just as problematic as applying modern scientific beliefs to it. In the case of the Genesis accounts, we actually need to look to the text itself and allow it to define its own terms (Expanse, earth, heaven, sea, stars, light, etc.).

When you do that, things really clear up quite nicely.

You can read H Morris' comments on the origins of Genesis here.

Who Wrote Genesis?
Excerpted from Henry M. Morris, the Genesis Record, pp. 25-30

I can give you a ton of other info on the tablet theory if you're interested.

But the bottom line, it's not correct to look at Genesis in light of cultures that developed thousands of years after it was originally written. That would include ANE culture.
But does Wiseman's toledoth theory have any evidence for this really early composition? He does have good textual evidence that Genesis is composed of documents that are indicated by the repetition of toledoth statements throughout the text, some, but not all, follow his idea that the title of the text was written at then end, Gen 2:4 These are the generations of the heavens and the earth, fits Genesis 1 which describes God creating the heavens and the earth, much better than Genesis 2 which starts off with the earth in existence and only mentions the heavens in passing when it talks of the birds of the heavens. Later on in Genesis the titles often fit the following text much better than the one that went before. Gen 36:1 the generations of Esau are followed by the lists of Esau's descendants. The chapter before it is all about Jacob. But with such a wide range of texts, covering different times and places, would you expect them all to follow the same convention?

Wiseman provides good evidence that Genesis was compiled from a series of document, with evidence for these documents found in the the statements of the text itself. What is really interesting is how closely the document divisions match the ones identified by vocabulary and writing style by the Documentary Hypothesis.

But where Wiseman goes beyond the evidence is when he claims the documents were written by people like Adam and Noah themselves. If the the book of the generations of Adam (Gen 5:1) was supposed to have been written by Adam, that the toledoth gives the author or owner, who was the generations of the heavens and the earth (Gen 2:4) written by? The most obvious answer is that the toledoth simply describes the contents of the text. The generations of the heavens and the earth describes the creation of the heavens and the earth. The generation of Esau (Gen 36:1) is called that because it lists Esau's descendants, not because it was owned by Esau.

This of course would be the classic mistake of trying to force Genesis into later ANE culture and modern culture for that matter. When you allow Genesis to define its own terms—heaven, earth, sea—a flat earth understanding is impossible. For earth and sea as defined in Genesis, are separate components of the world, and are never combined into a unit. Earth, (erets) is land and sea (yawm) is always the ocean (gen. 1:10). And it's quite remarkable that the understanding of these terms is consistent all throughout the Bible.

Ex. 20:11 For in six days the LORD made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and all that is in them....

You'll find this distinction consistent in the entire bible in both testaments. Earth is never a land/sea unit in the Bible as it is often understood today (as planet earth). Thus the idea of a disc-shaped planet or a globe for that matter can never be forced into the word erets, so long as we let the Bible define its own terms.

10 And God called the dry land Earth.....

The earth in biblical terms consists of mountains, valleys, and coastlines (ends of the earth). There's nothing flat about it.
Sometimes the bible expands on the phrase the heavens and the earth and sums up all of creation by adding in the seas and all that is in them, but often they are simply summed up with 'the heavens and the earth. If you look in Genesis 1, the creation account is introduced Gen 1:1 In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth, and concludes by summing up God's work with Gen 2:1 Thus the heavens and the earth were finished, and all the host of them. Yet this work of creation included making the seas and and filling them with fish.
 
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...But does Wiseman's toledoth theory have any evidence for this really early composition? He does have good textual evidence that Genesis is composed of documents that are indicated by the repetition of toledoth statements throughout the text, some, but not all, follow his idea that the title of the text was written at then end, ....

Virtually all of them do, though. What I took from his book was only the possibility that toledoth were subscripts. Then going back to the text with that possibly, I found that overwhelmingly the subscript pattern fit Genesis the best.

BTW, take a look at the Table of Nations again, when you get a chance. You'll find a subscript pattern there as well, though not including the term toledoth. For instance concluding Ham's family tree we see,

These are the sons of Ham by their clans and languages, in their territories and nations.

The same concluding statements follow Japheth and Shem.

Now what I found in my own personal exegesis of Genesis is that most of the time, the subscript toledoth work out perfectly. The only cases that don't work out, as you point out, are Esau's and Ishmael's. But in those cases context makes it impossible to view them as anything else. And they both appear to be embedded in the accounts of the brothers'. Ishmael's account occurs toward the end of Isaac's, and Esau's toward the end of Jacob's. Now you might wonder how Isaac and Jacob received accounts from the brothers, but in both cases, they were reunified and seemingly reconciled after the death's of the fathers. It would make sense they would trade information like this.

What is really interesting is how closely the document divisions match the ones identified by vocabulary and writing style by the Documentary Hypothesis.

Yeah, I would agree with that though christians have noticed the toledoth divisions for years as well. What Wiseman did was open up the possibility to them not being titles. That really opened up a lot of doors and solved a lot of problems.

But where Wiseman goes beyond the evidence is when he claims the documents were written by people like Adam and Noah themselves. If the the book of the generations of Adam (Gen 5:1) was supposed to have been written by Adam, that the toledoth gives the author or owner, who was the generations of the heavens and the earth (Gen 2:4) written by? The most obvious answer is that the toledoth simply describes the contents of the text. The generations of the heavens and the earth describes the creation of the heavens and the earth. The generation of Esau (Gen 36:1) is called that because it lists Esau's descendants, not because it was owned by Esau.

But see this is why Genesis has been somewhat confusing to scholars for so many years. For that's how these statement have always been looked at, and in most cases it simply doesn't work. Yet if you go by the name as a subscript we see very consistently that the events preceding occur during the lifetime of that person mentioned.

Now I'm not suggesting we ignore context. I'm merely saying that the subscript explanation works out the best.

Now you cite the creation toledoth as breaking the pattern by not having a name. But what I noticed and what Wiseman pointed out is if it did have a name, it also would break a pattern. For no human author could have experienced those events, or would have known another human who experienced those events. Those are events that only God could have conveyed to a human author. Therefore, it's the one and only toledoth subscript without a name attached to it. That seems to lend credence to the toledoth pattern rather than take away from it. Whoever received this account from God, didn't want to attach their name to it.

But look now at the rest of the toledoth with names attached. The book of the accounts of Adam spans from the creation of the Garden to Shem's birth (and also lists Cain's decedents down to Lemech's children). Those would have all been contemporary events of Adam's life.

Look also at Noah's toledoth, and the genealogy it contains. You'll notice in scripture that genealogies belong to the person last in the chain, not first. For instance look at Christ's genealogy. It begins with Adam, but is called the genealogy of Christ. In this case in Genesis five, we have the toledoth of Adam preceding it, and many think it's a title for the genealogy, but that wouldn't follow normal patterns. It should rightfully be called Noah's genealogy as he's the last in the chain, and lo and behold we find his toledoth in chapter 6:9a. Thus Noah's writing span from 5:1b-6:9a. And of course he would have been a contemporary to those events spoken of.

Now let's look at the next toledoth by Noah's sons as it's signed. This occurs later after the flood, but there's something that caught by eye in the very beginning of their account. It starts out in Gen. 6:9b "Noah was a righteous man, blamelessb among the people of his time" That would be odd for Noah to write, but not for his sons. Just an interesting tidbit.

Noah's sons, though, would have been the perfect authors of the flood account and the incidents immediately after the flood, including Noah's drinking episode.

Shem would have been a contemporary to the Babel account, outliving most of his descendants by hundreds of years. He was of course still alive when Isaac was born.

Same with Isaac's toledoth, same with Jacob's. Also notice what follows Jacob's toledoth. The story of Jacob? No! The story of Joseph. That one's been bugging commentators for years.

So comparing the two theories of the names representing subject matter or ownership, the ownership options seems to work out the best. In fact, it works out perfectly.
 
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The lexical definition is something shaped like a circle. (My source is actually Dr. Walton, whose Ph.D. is in Hebrew and Cognate Studies. He knows the language. And he says that Isa 40:22 refers to a disk, not a sphere. There's another word for that.)

Actually it can be used for any of the above (but I've never seen it used as a disc) including horizon depending on the context and I know of many Ph.Ds and MAs who are wolves hiding behind their sheepskins (not that Walton is, I have never read his work). I was merely pointing out it can be used in a number of ways (but as I said I have never seen or heard of it used as referring to a disc).

Gesenius was a German critical scholar and had no reason to support any particular point. That he notes sphere as one of the possibilities does not insist that it is how it is used in Isaiah just that it may be used in this fashion. In fact he translates it as vault or arch here...I take no personal stand to make is say the world is round.

Many people believed the world was round before the flat earthers....during a lunar eclipse the shadow of the earth was curved.

In His love

Paul
 
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Okay so let me agree that Moses wrote Genesis. He compiled it, edited it, translate it, redacted it, etc. He would have been very qualified to do so given his background.

I nor Henry Morris, nor ICR nor AiG disagrees Moses wrote Genesis and the rest of the Torah, save the sections he couldn't have. I'm merely proposing he worked with prior documents that bear the names of their owners.

Now you admit Moses drew on a variety of sources, prior writings etc.

Let me use that as an opportunity to show you some of the internal evidence that Moses compiled from previous writings. Look at some of the tenses used in Genesis, for instance. In describing the land of Havilah...
Thanks, I'm becoming sold on this. The more I read about it, the more I think it fits the entire book of Genesis together nicely.

  • We know they were writing on clay tablets at least as far back as Abraham.
  • We know that Moses believed the Israelite elders themselves had a reliable history that went as far back as the dispersion of the nations.
  • The pre-Flood accounts of creation, Adam, and Noah could have been either written or oral, as their size is within the range of human memorization and transmission.
  • The entire toledoth idea seems to fit, as long as the markers are considered to be at the end of their accounts.
Good stuff!
 
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Virtually all of them do, though. What I took from his book was only the possibility that toledoth were subscripts. Then going back to the text with that possibly, I found that overwhelmingly the subscript pattern fit Genesis the best.

BTW, take a look at the Table of Nations again, when you get a chance. You'll find a subscript pattern there as well, though not including the term toledoth. For instance concluding Ham's family tree we see,
These are the sons of Ham by their clans and languages, in their territories and nations.
The same concluding statements follow Japheth and Shem.
That is an interesting case. You have three distinct genealogies of Shem Ham and Japheth, each ending with a concluding statement, These are the sons of ... by their clans and languages, in their territories and nations. Definitely a conclusion to the genealogy though not you standard toledoth. But if you look back a verse before the first of these three genealogies starts we see it introduced by the standard toledoth Gen 10:1These are the generations of the sons of Noah. The passage concludes with verse that uses the word toledoth again repeats the reference to 'the sons of Noah' in verse 1 though it uses the word toledoth is different in the conclusion to the standard usage in verse 1 and the other toledoth statements in Genesis. It is Gen 10:32 These are the clans of the sons of Noah, according to their genealogies(toledoth), in their nations, and from these the nations spread abroad on the earth after the flood.

Every time we read These are the generations of suchandsuch a person, it is followed by the list of descendants of that person. Remember toledoth means generations or descent, if you look in the passages before the standard toledoth statements, you sometimes get relevant genealogies because it follows on from a the toledoth of an ancestor of that person, other times you don't get a genealogy before the toledoth you get a narrative, or worse, the genealogy of the wrong person, like the generation of Isaac being preceded by the descendants of Ishmael or the generation of Jacob being preceded the descendants of Esau.

Now what I found in my own personal exegesis of Genesis is that most of the time, the subscript toledoth work out perfectly. The only cases that don't work out, as you point out, are Esau's and Ishmael's. But in those cases context makes it impossible to view them as anything else. And they both appear to be embedded in the accounts of the brothers'. Ishmael's account occurs toward the end of Isaac's, and Esau's toward the end of Jacob's. Now you might wonder how Isaac and Jacob received accounts from the brothers, but in both cases, they were reunified and seemingly reconciled after the death's of the fathers. It would make sense they would trade information like this.
Then why in each case is the out of place list of descendants preceeded by the relevant toledoth? You have the generation of Jacob preceded by a list of Esau's descendants but if you read back you get to Gen 36:1 These are the generations of Esau and Gen 36:9 These are the generations of Esau the father of the Edomites in the hill country of Seir. The out of place genealogies (according to Wiseman) is preceded by the appropriate toledoth. The same with Jacob and Ismael.

It isn't really that much of an issue to me whether they are introductory titles to the following text or concluding toledoth to the text that went before. Their real importance is to mark off two different documentary sources. I don't buy the claim they mark the ownership or author of the particular texts. There is nothing in the text to suggest that.

Yeah, I would agree with that though christians have noticed the toledoth divisions for years as well.
Do you mean conservative Christian writers noticed the toledoth divisions and thought they marked different documentary sources, or just that they were like chapter divisions in a book written by Moses? If so do you have evidence for that, I would be fascinated to see it.

What Wiseman did was open up the possibility to them not being titles. That really opened up a lot of doors and solved a lot of problems.
I think that is where Wiseman went from identifying strong evidence for different documentary into wishful thinking that the documents were written by the various patriarchs whose genealogies are named in the toledoth.

But see this is why Genesis has been somewhat confusing to scholars for so many years. For that's how these statement have always been looked at, and in most cases it simply doesn't work. Yet if you go by the name as a subscript we see very consistently that the events preceding occur during the lifetime of that person mentioned.

Now I'm not suggesting we ignore context. I'm merely saying that the subscript explanation works out the best.
Apart from Gen 2:4, which 'these are the generations of' toledoths do you think don't work?

Now you cite the creation toledoth as breaking the pattern by not having a name. But what I noticed and what Wiseman pointed out is if it did have a name, it also would break a pattern. For no human author could have experienced those events, or would have known another human who experienced those events. Those are events that only God could have conveyed to a human author. Therefore, it's the one and only toledoth subscript without a name attached to it. That seems to lend credence to the toledoth pattern rather than take away from it. Whoever received this account from God, didn't want to attach their name to it.
Then if Wiseman was right and toledoth marked the author it should say "These are the generations of God" and no one would have thought it was suggesting God had a genealogy. No, the generation of the heavens and the earth tell us the toledoth give the subject, not the author. That is what the Hebrew phrase means, the Toledoth of Esau means the generations of Esau, Esau's line of descent or descendants.

But look now at the rest of the toledoth with names attached. The book of the accounts of Adam spans from the creation of the Garden to Shem's birth (and also lists Cain's decedents down to Lemech's children). Those would have all been contemporary events of Adam's life.
The issue isn't whether Adam could have witnessed the events but whether the the toledoth is followed by the appropriate genealogy or not. There are two genealogies on either side of the book of the generations of Adam (Gen 5:1) But the genealogy in front of it Genesis 4 is all about Cain's descendants, with barely a mention Seth and Enosh at the end. On the other hand, if we look at what follows the book of the genealogy of Adam, the rest of Genesis 5 starts with Adam's own creation and follows the line of descent down through Seth, down to Noah. Which is the book of the generations of Adam, the failed line through Cain, or the line of promise through Seth?

Look also at Noah's toledoth, and the genealogy it contains. You'll notice in scripture that genealogies belong to the person last in the chain, not first. For instance look at Christ's genealogy. It begins with Adam, but is called the genealogy of Christ. In this case in Genesis five, we have the toledoth of Adam preceding it, and many think it's a title for the genealogy, but that wouldn't follow normal patterns. It should rightfully be called Noah's genealogy as he's the last in the chain, and lo and behold we find his toledoth in chapter 6:9a. Thus Noah's writing span from 5:1b-6:9a. And of course he would have been a contemporary to those events spoken of.
Genealogies can run both ways, they can record someone's ancestry or their descendants. In terms of naming the genealogy, it will be named after the person the text is written about or the most important person, for example one of the patriarchs. Jesus is obviously the most important person in the genealogy in the gospels and he is the subject of the book, so obviously the genealogy will be named after him. But Jesus hardly wrote the genealogies we read in the gospels or even owned them It is called Matt 1:1 The book of the genealogy of Jesus Christ, because it is about Jesus.

With Noah, we have a complete change in topic at the start of Genesis 6, the lead up to the flood. But when we read about the generations of Noah Gen 6:9, it is followed by a description of Noah and his sons, before we go into the flood story. The next genealogy is found in Gen 10:1 These are the generations of the sons of Noah, Shem, Ham, and Japheth. It is followed immediately by the list of descendants of Japheth, ham and Shem. It is the same with 'these are the generations of suchandsuch' they are followed an account of that persons children or descendants.

Now let's look at the next toledoth by Noah's sons as it's signed. This occurs later after the flood, but there's something that caught by eye in the very beginning of their account. It starts out in Gen. 6:9b "Noah was a righteous man, blamelessb among the people of his time" That would be odd for Noah to write, but not for his sons. Just an interesting tidbit.
Who said Noah or his son's wrote it? Where do you think it is signed?

Noah's sons, though, would have been the perfect authors of the flood account and the incidents immediately after the flood, including Noah's drinking episode.
Would a respectful son like Shem write such a thing about his father? Or did that account belong to Ham? Would Ham want to write about an event that led to his son Canaan being cursed? How could the genealogy be written or belong to all three of them? Of course you are assuming they could even write. Claiming they would be perfect authors doesn't mean anything when there is nothing in the text to say that they did write it, it could just as easily have been written generations later.

Shem would have been a contemporary to the Babel account, outliving most of his descendants by hundreds of years. He was of course still alive when Isaac was born.

Same with Isaac's toledoth, same with Jacob's. Also notice what follows Jacob's toledoth. The story of Jacob? No! The story of Joseph. That one's been bugging commentators for years.

So comparing the two theories of the names representing subject matter or ownership, the ownership options seems to work out the best. In fact, it works out perfectly.
Given the long life spans attributed to people in Genesis it is hardly surprising you can say they were alive during the time period covered in the previous text. But while the long lifespans are convenient for Wiseman's theory, it is no evidence that Shem wrote the text. It makes much more sense that the generations of Shem (Gen 11:10a) refers to the long list of of Shem's descendants that follows immediately after Gen 11:10b When Shem was 100 years old, he fathered Arpachshad two years after the flood. 11 And Shem lived after he fathered Arpachshad 500 years and had other sons and daughters. 12 When Arpachshad had lived 35 years, he fathered Shelah...

If we step beyond Genesis and its long life spans, who do you think wrote the generations of Perez (Ruth 4:18)? The genealogy that follows, traces Perez's descendants down through Boaz, Ruth's husband, down as far as David. The lifespans had dropped quite low by the time Perez was born to Judah, he was hardly around to write or own a genealogy all the way down to David. It also show us how genealogies can trace the line of descent from an ancestor as well as show someone's ancestry like we see with Jesus.

We see it as well in Numbers 3:1 where the generations of Aaron and Moses is followed by a list of Aaron’s children while the previous chapter is the census of the tribes of Israel.
 
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That is an interesting case. You have three distinct genealogies of Shem Ham and Japheth, each ending with a concluding statement, These are the sons of ... by their clans and languages, in their territories and nations. Definitely a conclusion to the genealogy though not you standard toledoth. But if you look back a verse before the first of these three genealogies starts we see it introduced by the standard toledoth Gen 10:1These are the generations of the sons of Noah.

Which also fits perfectly as a subscript. Naoh's sons would have been the perfect account givers for all the events from Gen. 6:9b.

You'll also find, that genealogies (not to be confused with toledoth) often appear at the front or near the front of accounts. So it's no surprise to me that in multiple toledoth that are strung together you'd have subscripts directly followed by genealogies in the following toledoth.

Every time we read These are the generations of suchandsuch a person, it is followed by the list of descendants of that person.

Really?

Gen. 6:9 This is the account of Noah.

Noah was a righteous man, blameless among the people of his time, and he walked with God.​

Gee, I don't see any list of descendants there.

Gen. 11:27 This is the account of Terah.

Terah became the father of Abram, Nahor and Haran. And Haran became the father of Lot. 28 While his father Terah was still alive, Haran died in Ur of the Chaldeans, in the land of his birth.​

Hmmm. This one doesn't have a genealogy either, just the mention of Terah's sons that then a narrative.

Gen. 25:19 This is the account of Abraham’s son Isaac.

Abraham became the father of Isaac, 20 and Isaac was forty years old when he married Rebekah daughter of Bethuel the Aramean from Paddan Aram and sister of Laban the Aramean.​

And no genealogy here either. Just the mention of only one of Abraham's sons and his age at the time he married followed by a narrative. So far your claim isn't bearing on the evidence.

Gen. 37:2 This is the account of Jacob.

Joseph, a young man of seventeen, was tending the flocks with his brothers, the sons of Bilhah and the sons of Zilpah, his father’s wives, and he brought their father a bad report about them.​

And strike 4. No genealogy here either. All that follows is a narrative of Joseph's life, many of the details of which, Jacob didn't have access to.

And then when you apply the fact that genealogies are lists of ancestors and not descendants actually none of them work. If I told you I wanted you to take a look at my genealogy, what would expect to see? A tree of my ancestors? Or a tree of my descendants?

Case closed.

It appears you've gone from the toledoth being "about" the named individual which didn't work out, to a "genealogy" of the named individual, which also doesn't work out. Either you need a new theory or come on board with me on this one.

But this truly has been part of the stumbling block of the toledoth for so long. Traditional structures just don't seem to work. But when we realize toledoth is not a term for genealogies all all, and that these are concluding remarks (per ancient structures) rather than introductory remarks (per less ancient structures), suddenly all the problems disappear. A toledoth could start with a genealogy, or it could start with a narrative. No more confusion.

Now Wiseman, to his credit, put forth this hypothesis that toledoth did not mean genealogies, but rather accounts, chronicles, histories, records, etc. And at the time he actually received very broad support from scholars. They are listed in his book (which I linked a few posts back). And in fact most modern dictionaries will affirm those translation options.

For instance, KM Hebrew Dictionary: account, record, genealogy, family line.

Strongs also lists history within its range of meanings.

But I don't think the translation generations ever works, frankly, in Genesis. Nor does genealogy. A genealogy can be in a toledoth, but a toledoth is not a genealogy.

As you can see in the examples above, most of the primary toledoth in Genesis are not followed by genealogies. (Unless of course you're going to change the definition of a genealogy, but hopefully you wont go there)

But what does work in every case (as Wiseman to his credit pointed out) is the author/owner theory. In every case it works out perfectly. All the named author/owners were either eyewitnesses to their account, or had access to eyewitnesses to their account. Adam was a contemporary to the events in his toledoth. Noah was a contemporary to the events in his. Shem, Ham and Japheth were contemporaries to all the events in there toledoth. Now in their case, we don't know which particular sections they each recorded. Seems more likely Japheth or Shem handled the part regarding Ham's sin. Regardless, Shem would have been a perfect account giver of the Table of Nations and Babel accounts, given is long lifespan after the Flood. And both Isaac and Jacob would have had access to direct witnesses of all the events in their toledoth.

Now the only question is, why is there no toledoth subscript for Joseph? Wiseman had his own theories, but I think the simple answer may be, writing structures were different in Egypt. They may have used different methods and employed different structures. Scholars have noticed some egyptian attributes in this particular section, and I think it simply was a case in which there was no subscript included, and therefore Moses simply didn't know who the author was.

The Bible covers a great deal of time and therefore we should expect to see structural changes as we progress through the book.
 
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