Excuse me? I am not seeing what you are seeing in my post. Where did I question your intelligence? What I did say is that the existence of enemies of a church does not validate that church's claims, because the mere existence of alternative histories/claims/etc. is insufficient to do so. If every church/ecclesiastical body has had its enemies at some time, then how can the existence of these enemies say anything about the truthfulness of any given church's position? Again, are the Nestorians right by virtue of having been opposed by the Orthodox? And if so, then are the Orthodox right for having been opposed by the Nestorians (or the Arians, or the whoevers)?
I'm sorry, I must've missed this bit of information earlier. My apologies. I suppose I should have specified "ecclesiastical historian", then, but I would imagine that secular history functions the same, does it not? I mean this in as serious and impartial a manner as possible: You do not teach your students that the existence of histories written from other viewpoints beyond those from which you teach necessarily makes those other viewpoints "correct", do you? Because it's hard for me to see how this would not also be the case with historical ecclesiastical sources.
I have done at least some reading on the Celtic Church. Although it is not a primary interest of mine, there is at least some interesting material out there to be found (written from an OO perspective, from our beloved brethren in the British Orthodox Church under HE Metropolitan Seraphim) that suggests that the Celtic Church was not only Orthodox, but
heavily influenced by Coptic monasticism. (This seems speculative to me, but certainly not entirely outside of the realm of possibility.)
Yes, certainly. I would only say, with respect, that it is strange to seek such a thing to answer a strictly polemical question, such as which church is true. That was my point in saying that in the first place -- I have OO sources that I trust, and EO have theirs, and RC theirs, and Protestants theirs, etc. but is one is "objective" and the others not? I would not say so, because by virtue of having been written by the people who wrote them, in the context in which they were written (political, historical, etc.), they can't be. I was just reading today, in fact, in some of the writings of Dionysus of Tel Mahre, a bit about how the emperor Heraclius visited Edessa (today's Sanliurfa, Turkey), which was in his day a center of non-Chalcedonian Syriac Christianity, and upon being refused the Eucharist in one of the city's cathedrals due to his own adherence to Chalcedon, he became enraged and handed over the cathedral to the Chalcedonians, after kicking out the presiding bishop and all of his people. Is there any way to say for sure that this happened as recounted? Would it make any sense at all to look to the enemies of the non-Chalcedonians, the ones who by this account inherited the cathedral by this action, to give us the "truth" regarding what really happened? No, of course not. The story itself is polemical, and any response to it from the Chalcedonians (and any alternative history regarding how they came to control the cathedral, should they have one) would likewise be polemical. That is not to say that there is no one true sequence of events (i.e., obviously
something happened, either along the lines of this story or a different retelling), only that you won't be finding an objective history of it anywhere you look, as everyone has their own biases. I would think that the job of the historian would then be to sift through the biases inherent in their sources to try to come to some sort of consensus among the ancient historians who cover the same event and determine what is most likely the basic facts, and what is later embellishment -- not to hope for an objective history which can only be reasonably approximated
after having done that. This is why I am confused by your approach. The EO people in this thread have told you things from their viewpoints, which you are of course free to believe or disbelieve, but the idea that they should be judged as being "biased"...well, yes, of course they are, but so are the Roman Catholic, Lutheran, etc. sources that you have mentioned. So is everyone.
I would expect them to, though. That's the difference, I think, between the two of us. To me, whether it's the RCs saying what they say, or the EO saying what they say, or whoever else saying what they say, so long as they are being consistent with regard to their own historical sources, I don't see a problem. I absolutely do the same thing. Who can do otherwise, in service of what they have been taught or otherwise embraced as correct?
I am sorry, I don't want to enrage you further, but I just don't see this as a lack of bias. Perhaps it hasn't led you to a
specific church over others, but the relatively frequent mentions of the Baptists and others as somehow being equal (or equally plausible) claimants to the faith of the ancient church certainly does not strike me as being "objective and unbiased".
By virtue of the fact that you have dismissed EO claims as being biased while clinging to RC, Protestant, etc. sources and claims, it is clear that you're certainly not biased towards the EO -- but perhaps the environment of this particular subforum, where people are unwilling to entertain the idea that somehow these other bodies have equal truth claims or equal validity in their historical sources of interpretation of church history and/or scripture, has produced bias
against the EO. As I wrote before (I'll try to reword it here, so as to be less biased): If the claims of the EO can be dismissed out of hand as being "sheer bias", why is the same level of scrutiny not subjected to the sources you have brought forth to substantiate your own belief, or lack of belief, in other particular ecclesiastical bodies or churches? Why are the EO wrong but these other churches not as obviously so/potentially right? Is a Catholic or Baptist source inherently more trustworthy, and if so, why?
Again, I have openly stated that my own sources are biased. Perhaps not surprisingly, then, I am biased against anything that is outside of my own communion, because I believe that it is true and others' are not.