Can women hold office in the church even pastors

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Metal Minister

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Ok, seriously, CAN WE GET THE CURSE WORD FILTER FIXED!?!?! I just spent nearly as long as it took me to write my last post, going back and deleting the [ bless and do not curse ] tags from around every third word, and every number! It's highly agitating! /rant
 
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classicalhero

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Investigate Diana (Roman - centered in Ephesus) and Artemis (Same Goddess -Greek version).
There is a difference between worshipping goddess and having women in prominent roles in worship. In fact one of the great ironies about this discussion is that women in Christianity could do far more in a church setting than in any other worship setting at the time.
 
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twin1954

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Investigate Diana (Roman - centered in Ephesus) and Artemis (Same Goddess -Greek version).
Paul said the same thing to the Corinthians but neither one of those goddesses were worshipped there. Corinth was the center for the worship of Diana.

The simple fact is that it is irrelevant what false god or goddess was worshipped in those cities.

Now if you want to understand a cultural reason for Paul saying things you will find it in his prohibition of fornication. Those cities were well known, especially Corinth, for the rampant prostitution and a major part of the pagan temple worship was profligate sex with the priestesses. But the prohibition applies in all cases not just that cultural instance. Same with his prohibition of women being pastors. It applies in all cultures and every generation.

So if you are going to argue that it no longer applies because of the cultural significance of his writing, by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit by the way, then you must apply the same logic to fornication.
 
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abacabb3

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Do you read and translate NT Greek?

Please give a literal, word for word, word order specific translation of 1 Tim 2:12:
διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω, οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ’ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ

Thanks

Nope, but the NLT doesn't classify itself as a word-for-word translation, so calling it one would be inaccurate;)
 
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OzSpen

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Just off the top of my head without any helps:
teaching and woman not allow and not usurp authority over a man but to be in silence...

I told you I was out of town and don't have my Greek text with me to check your wording by so I just gave you what you had.

I think you need your helps. διδάσκειν is not a participle, 'teaching'.
 
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Nope, but the NLT doesn't classify itself as a word-for-word translation, so calling it one would be inaccurate;)

Where did I state that the NLT was a word-for-word translation? Please inform me where.
 
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abacabb3

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Where did I state that the NLT was a word-for-word translation? Please inform me where.
So, you don't want to defend the NLT's rendering of 1 Cor 11:2 which speaks of holding firmly to "the traditions?" If so, then there is no more debate.

I don't need to be a Greek scholar to know how to use an Interlinear Bible: Online Greek Interlinear Bible

Also don't need to be a Greek scholar to use google. Josephus in the Antiquities in Book XIII CHapter 10:16 and in Chapter 16:2 uses the term "paradoseis" to mean "traditions" of the Pharisees, in context "the tradition of our forefather."

So, the NLT is not inaccurate when it says "the teachings I passed on to you." However, the choice of "teachings" instead of "tradition" lacks a specific connotation that would have been obvious to Josephus, Paul, and Jesus when they all used the term. It is for this reason, when you use Strong's concordance or anything else, paradoseis is always defined as "tradition." A simple teaching that did not carry the weight of a tradition is referred to as "didache" in the Greek, just like the ancient Christian work that carries the name, The Didache.

I only bother going through all this detail, because any lurkers here following this conversation should be aware that the sort of argumentation both you and BlueLion employ is in my mind disingenuous. Ultimately, the traditionalists here argue "well, it simply says a woman cannot have authority or teach over a man." Because you guys don't want to submit to this literal teaching in the Scripture, you have devised word games and interpretive stretches based upon presuppositions you do not make clear to those reading, in order to confuse and intellectually overwhelm those who have never heard such things before.

However, if anyone actually does the research and digs deep, they will find that your arguments from the Greek are disingenuous, your history is made up, and your hermeneutic is inconsistent and convoluted. This is precisely why both have you have played games like "you didn't translate that one word right!" and "where in the Bible does it speak of ordaining a minister" and other questions meant to distract from the very simple point at hand:

A woman must not teach or have authority over a man. This is what the Bible teaches. There is zero evidence this was a temporary injunction. In fact, it is particularly offensive to me that you can even argue the Scripture will address issues that have zero import to us today. You have turned the Scripture into a bunch of irrelevant ancient documents and not the living word of God, sharper than any two edged sword that cuts right to the marrow.

Last, don't think I forgot what many of the lurkers here did: you may claim you hold to the inerrancy of Scripture but you most definitely do not. If you claim that you do, you lie and should repent of your dishonesty. As a reminder to you and everyone else you wrote:

Paul clearly says that the man was not deceived. Well, he was deceived...

So, here we are arguing in circles about what the inerrant word of God says, but you flagrantly say that even when Paul says something "clear" he can be in the wrong, as we can all see in the above.

I will give BlueLion credit. Much of what he wrote is incomprehensible and indefensible from the evidence, but he has never taken the contradictory position you have claiming that the Bible is inerrant in one post and fighting over minor Greek details (that the vast majority of Greek scholars, translators, theologians, and CHristians over church history disagree with you about, but that's a "fallacy" right?) on one hand and on the other simply saying a clear statement from Paul could be wrong.

And, ultimately, this is what it all comes down to. In your gut, you think what Paul clearly says about women not teaching is wrong. It does not matter what the Greek, what the rest of the Scripture, what the context of the passage, what a consistent hermeneutic would have you believe, what all the early Christians believed, what all the Reformers believed, what all the modern Greek scholars would understand from the text---no, none of this matters. You simply do not like what it says and will employ inconsistent mental gymnastics to get the job done.

None of this is a personal attack, it is the God's honest truth. I say this in all love and Christian charity, it is fine if you are wrong on this issue but not the Gospel. However, what I have often found is those that get simple doctrines such as these wrong often do not know what the Gospel really is. We can agree to disagree. I think I have made my point.
 
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twin1954

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So, you don't want to defend the NLT's rendering of 1 Cor 11:2 which speaks of holding firmly to "the traditions?" If so, then there is no more debate.

I don't need to be a Greek scholar to know how to use an Interlinear Bible: Online Greek Interlinear Bible

Also don't need to be a Greek scholar to use google. Josephus in the Antiquities in Book XIII CHapter 10:16 and in Chapter 16:2 uses the term "paradoseis" to mean "traditions" of the Pharisees, in context "the tradition of our forefather."

So, the NLT is not inaccurate when it says "the teachings I passed on to you." However, the choice of "teachings" instead of "tradition" lacks a specific connotation that would have been obvious to Josephus, Paul, and Jesus when they all used the term. It is for this reason, when you use Strong's concordance or anything else, paradoseis is always defined as "tradition." A simple teaching that did not carry the weight of a tradition is referred to as "didache" in the Greek, just like the ancient Christian work that carries the name, The Didache.

I only bother going through all this detail, because any lurkers here following this conversation should be aware that the sort of argumentation both you and BlueLion employ is in my mind disingenuous. Ultimately, the traditionalists here argue "well, it simply says a woman cannot have authority or teach over a man." Because you guys don't want to submit to this literal teaching in the Scripture, you have devised word games and interpretive stretches based upon presuppositions you do not make clear to those reading, in order to confuse and intellectually overwhelm those who have never heard such things before.

However, if anyone actually does the research and digs deep, they will find that your arguments from the Greek are disingenuous, your history is made up, and your hermeneutic is inconsistent and convoluted. This is precisely why both have you have played games like "you didn't translate that one word right!" and "where in the Bible does it speak of ordaining a minister" and other questions meant to distract from the very simple point at hand:

A woman must not teach or have authority over a man. This is what the Bible teaches. There is zero evidence this was a temporary injunction. In fact, it is particularly offensive to me that you can even argue the Scripture will address issues that have zero import to us today. You have turned the Scripture into a bunch of irrelevant ancient documents and not the living word of God, sharper than any two edged sword that cuts right to the marrow.

Last, don't think I forgot what many of the lurkers here did: you may claim you hold to the inerrancy of Scripture but you most definitely do not. If you claim that you do, you lie and should repent of your dishonesty. As a reminder to you and everyone else you wrote:



So, here we are arguing in circles about what the inerrant word of God says, but you flagrantly say that even when Paul says something "clear" he can be in the wrong, as we can all see in the above.

I will give BlueLion credit. Much of what he wrote is incomprehensible and indefensible from the evidence, but he has never taken the contradictory position you have claiming that the Bible is inerrant in one post and fighting over minor Greek details (that the vast majority of Greek scholars, translators, theologians, and CHristians over church history disagree with you about, but that's a "fallacy" right?) on one hand and on the other simply saying a clear statement from Paul could be wrong.

And, ultimately, this is what it all comes down to. In your gut, you think what Paul clearly says about women not teaching is wrong. It does not matter what the Greek, what the rest of the Scripture, what the context of the passage, what a consistent hermeneutic would have you believe, what all the early Christians believed, what all the Reformers believed, what all the modern Greek scholars would understand from the text---no, none of this matters. You simply do not like what it says and will employ inconsistent mental gymnastics to get the job done.

None of this is a personal attack, it is the God's honest truth. I say this in all love and Christian charity, it is fine if you are wrong on this issue but not the Gospel. However, what I have often found is those that get simple doctrines such as these wrong often do not know what the Gospel really is. We can agree to disagree. I think I have made my point.
:thumbsup::thumbsup:
 
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I'm curious, since I don't, how many years has anyone or in learning Greek? I've met two people who have told me they wouldn't listen to someone using Greek unless they had 7 years of training, at least, because then they would be sure they knew how to understand syntax of the Greek words. Certainly there are time when a word has deeper meaning than English can express (agape, phileo, eros), but mostly agree the English word for word translations say what the Greek says and sufficient for understanding.
 
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OzSpen

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Your response at #188 has nothing to do with what I wrote at #187. Therefore, it is a red herring logical fallacy. We cannot have a logical discussion when you use a logical fallacy.

Oz

So, you don't want to defend the NLT's rendering of 1 Cor 11:2 which speaks of holding firmly to "the traditions?" If so, then there is no more debate.

I don't need to be a Greek scholar to know how to use an Interlinear Bible: Online Greek Interlinear Bible

Also don't need to be a Greek scholar to use google. Josephus in the Antiquities in Book XIII CHapter 10:16 and in Chapter 16:2 uses the term "paradoseis" to mean "traditions" of the Pharisees, in context "the tradition of our forefather."

So, the NLT is not inaccurate when it says "the teachings I passed on to you." However, the choice of "teachings" instead of "tradition" lacks a specific connotation that would have been obvious to Josephus, Paul, and Jesus when they all used the term. It is for this reason, when you use Strong's concordance or anything else, paradoseis is always defined as "tradition." A simple teaching that did not carry the weight of a tradition is referred to as "didache" in the Greek, just like the ancient Christian work that carries the name, The Didache.

I only bother going through all this detail, because any lurkers here following this conversation should be aware that the sort of argumentation both you and BlueLion employ is in my mind disingenuous. Ultimately, the traditionalists here argue "well, it simply says a woman cannot have authority or teach over a man." Because you guys don't want to submit to this literal teaching in the Scripture, you have devised word games and interpretive stretches based upon presuppositions you do not make clear to those reading, in order to confuse and intellectually overwhelm those who have never heard such things before.

However, if anyone actually does the research and digs deep, they will find that your arguments from the Greek are disingenuous, your history is made up, and your hermeneutic is inconsistent and convoluted. This is precisely why both have you have played games like "you didn't translate that one word right!" and "where in the Bible does it speak of ordaining a minister" and other questions meant to distract from the very simple point at hand:

A woman must not teach or have authority over a man. This is what the Bible teaches. There is zero evidence this was a temporary injunction. In fact, it is particularly offensive to me that you can even argue the Scripture will address issues that have zero import to us today. You have turned the Scripture into a bunch of irrelevant ancient documents and not the living word of God, sharper than any two edged sword that cuts right to the marrow.

Last, don't think I forgot what many of the lurkers here did: you may claim you hold to the inerrancy of Scripture but you most definitely do not. If you claim that you do, you lie and should repent of your dishonesty. As a reminder to you and everyone else you wrote:



So, here we are arguing in circles about what the inerrant word of God says, but you flagrantly say that even when Paul says something "clear" he can be in the wrong, as we can all see in the above.

I will give BlueLion credit. Much of what he wrote is incomprehensible and indefensible from the evidence, but he has never taken the contradictory position you have claiming that the Bible is inerrant in one post and fighting over minor Greek details (that the vast majority of Greek scholars, translators, theologians, and CHristians over church history disagree with you about, but that's a "fallacy" right?) on one hand and on the other simply saying a clear statement from Paul could be wrong.

And, ultimately, this is what it all comes down to. In your gut, you think what Paul clearly says about women not teaching is wrong. It does not matter what the Greek, what the rest of the Scripture, what the context of the passage, what a consistent hermeneutic would have you believe, what all the early Christians believed, what all the Reformers believed, what all the modern Greek scholars would understand from the text---no, none of this matters. You simply do not like what it says and will employ inconsistent mental gymnastics to get the job done.

None of this is a personal attack, it is the God's honest truth. I say this in all love and Christian charity, it is fine if you are wrong on this issue but not the Gospel. However, what I have often found is those that get simple doctrines such as these wrong often do not know what the Gospel really is. We can agree to disagree. I think I have made my point.
 
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Metal Minister

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Your response at #188 has nothing to do with what I wrote at #187. Therefore, it is a red herring logical fallacy. We cannot have a logical discussion when you use a logical fallacy.

Oz

Oz, really, not this nonsense again! It's distracting and annoying as well as derailing the thread.
 
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OzSpen

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Oz, really, not this nonsense again! It's distracting and annoying as well as derailing the thread.

So you are treating illogic as 'nonsense'. It is not derailing the thread. It is dealing with the content of what is happening in the thread.

Your response to me here also is a red herring fallacy because it does not deal with what I wrote at #192. I would appreciate it if you would acknowledge what you did here with the fallacy committed and stop doing it.
 
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abacabb3

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Oz,

Then there is nothing left to say I suppose. The fact that you won't defend yourself against the assertion that you don't believe in the inerrancy of Scripture pretty much makes clear to everyone where you stand on that.

Because I believe in the inerrancy of Scripture, I am compelled to assert that the ordaining of men as Pastors is the correct Christian practice. Those who deny the doctrine of inerrancy, obviously, can believe anything they want.
 
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Oz,

Then there is nothing left to say I suppose. The fact that you won't defend yourself against the assertion that you don't believe in the inerrancy of Scripture pretty much makes clear to everyone where you stand on that.

Because I believe in the inerrancy of Scripture, I am compelled to assert that the ordaining of men as Pastors is the correct Christian practice. Those who deny the doctrine of inerrancy, obviously, can believe anything they want.
I have told you a number of times that I believe in the inerrancy of Scripture. I do not have to defend that as that it not the issue we were discussing.

This is what you still have not responded to in #187:
Where did I state that the NLT was a word-for-word translation? Please inform me where.
If you continue to use the illogic of logical fallacies, I will not respond to you any further as we can't have a logical discussion when you do this.

Oz
 
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abacabb3

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I have told you a number of times that I believe in the inerrancy of Scripture. I do not have to defend that as that it not the issue we were discussing.

This is what you still have not responded to in #187:

If you continue to use the illogic of logical fallacies, I will not respond to you any further as we can't have a logical discussion when you do this.

Oz
Already answered that, I even went into the Greek.

Now, why do you persist in the lie that you ascribe to inerrancy? Didn't you write:

Paul clearly says that the man was not deceived. Well, he was deceived...

So, here we are arguing in circles about what the inerrant word of God says, but you flagrantly say that even when Paul says something "clear" he can be in the wrong, as we can all see in the above.

Do you want to lie again or do you want to recant?
 
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mikedsjr

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Ozspen, just to make sure it is answered rightly, you said the NLT is a dynamic equivalence translation, which means meaning-for-meaning translation.

For me, I don't trust anything but word for word translations. Can easily change meaning when a meaning by meaning. I'm surprised you classified the Message as a translation because it's not.

Anyone using the Message as their study book is very dangerous and should be rebuked. Just My opinion.
 
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abacabb3

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What OzSpen and Bluelion don't seem to understand is employing a meaning-for-meaning translation when debating the meaning of a single world (here the Greek word for "tradition") is pretty foolish, being that in a meaning-for-meaning translation a judgment call can be made not to sue the literal word "tradition" if in the mind of the "translator" Paul was not invoking binding traditions (which given the context of 1 Cor 11, which includes the Lord's Supper, is a very BAD argument.)
 
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Ozspen, just to make sure it is answered rightly, you said the NLT is a dynamic equivalence translation, which means meaning-for-meaning translation.

For me, I don't trust anything but word for word translations. Can easily change meaning when a meaning by meaning. I'm surprised you classified the Message as a translation because it's not.

Anyone using the Message as their study book is very dangerous and should be rebuked. Just My opinion.

Are you referring to this?:

The Message Study Bible: Capturing the Notes and Reflections of Eugene H. Peterson
 
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