"Assurance"

ArmyMatt

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I'll be honest - my problems are with placing Mary in too prominent a position, praying to Mary and Saints, and I'm not sure about icons.

had some of those issues meself. Mary goes with the saints since, for us, she is the great example and not the great exception. she shows what everyone is called to be. she is unique in her closeness to God, but she is not unique in that I can have that closeness as can you, and everyone. where she is now is where I am called to be, because becoming close to God is not something that ever ends. so she is further along than I am (as is every saint), but I am called to that level of closeness as well.

prayer is merely a petition. since the saints are alive in Christ, and God is the God of the living and not of the dead, prayer to a saint is merely asking the saint to pray for us, much in the same way you might ask a friend or loved one to pray for you.

icons are merely, theology in color. images were used in the Temple and Tabernacle, so there has always been a difference between a graven image (which is worshiped itself) and a holy image (which visually aides man in his worship of God).

hope this makes sense.

and what you could do is just check out your closest Orthodox Church or contact the priest for a sit down. I can say that in the 9ish years that I have been looking into the Church and been in the Church, I have never not felt at home when I have been in a Church for whatever reason (retreat, services, etc).
 
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~Anastasia~

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had some of those issues meself. Mary goes with the saints since, for us, she is the great example and not the great exception. she shows what everyone is called to be. she is unique in her closeness to God, but she is not unique in that I can have that closeness as can you, and everyone. where she is now is where I am called to be, because becoming close to God is not something that ever ends. so she is further along than I am (as is every saint), but I am called to that level of closeness as well.

prayer is merely a petition. since the saints are alive in Christ, and God is the God of the living and not of the dead, prayer to a saint is merely asking the saint to pray for us, much in the same way you might ask a friend or loved one to pray for you.

icons are merely, theology in color. images were used in the Temple and Tabernacle, so there has always been a difference between a graven image (which is worshiped itself) and a holy image (which visually aides man in his worship of God).

hope this makes sense.

and what you could do is just check out your closest Orthodox Church or contact the priest for a sit down. I can say that in the 9ish years that I have been looking into the Church and been in the Church, I have never not felt at home when I have been in a Church for whatever reason (retreat, services, etc).

Thanks, Army Matt

As far as icons, venerating items, etc. - I have statues of Jesus (I believe the Orthodox Church specifically speaks against statues used in worship?) and artwork that remind me of Christ and our relationship with Him. I have no problem with being placed in mind. When specifically worshipping, I don't mind images being shown. The specific thought in my mind is that those images remind me of Christ, or what He did, and so on. I do not regard the images themselves as sacred nor worship them. Particularly since they are modern artistic renditions, I think this is even more important.

I tend to agree with my husband (though he surprised me) but as he explained, someone kissing the Scriptures, say, or a cross necklace, do not constitute worship in his mind or seem wrong, but just "kissing means you love something" and with that explanation I am satisfied.

I'm sure I have more nuances to consider. Bowing down before a statue and actually worshipping the statue itself is impossible for me to consider.

I'm thinking about Mary, and the saints.

The angel told John to get up and not worship him. Only God is to be worshipped, is what I get from that. So I am asking myself, does prayer = worship? Most specifically, would asking someone to pray FOR you be worship, if that's all it was. That seems less a problem. I am trying to find if ever we are told to direct prayers only to God. I can't recall offhand that we were, but we don't have any other example to follow either, as far as I can tell.

And my mind goes (forgive me) to Saul calling up Samuel. I know that is a totally different thing, but it's the only example in Scripture I can think of where a living person speaks to a dead one.

Depending on exactly how Mary is regarded ... I can see giving her a place of prominence. I can see giving the Apostle John a place of prominence. But I do see Jesus as having a special place among men that no other, including Mary, can ever approach in terms of Who He is, and what He has done for us.

Anyway, those are some of my thought on the problems and questions I have. I don't fully understand the Orthodox viewpoint, and have not explored these particular questions beyond just hearing what people comment in passing, so I don't mean to be unfair in my comments. I do know I don't understand fully, and I prefer to know what someone really believes before ever commenting on it.

I thank you for your help, and patience, and everyone here. I hope very much nothing I've said here offends. It is just my limited understanding at this point.

Thank you all.
 
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Lukaris

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We understand matters like intercessory prayer among the earthly & heavenly living as expressed in the totality of worship indicated in the Bible. The heavenly cloud of witnesses in Hebrews 12, the presence of Moses & Elijah at the Transfiguration, the Lord telling us God is of the living not the dead in Matthew 22:32, the prayers of the saints in Revelation, there are some of us who see the Theotokos (the Virgin Mary) in Revelation 12 etc accompany our prayer for the salvation of ourselves & our neighbor as part of the call to pray for all people as St. Paul preaches 1st Timothy 2:1.
 
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We understand matters like intercessory prayer among the earthly & heavenly living as expressed in the totality of worship indicated in the Bible. The heavenly cloud of witnesses in Hebrews 12, the presence of Moses & Elijah at the Transfiguration, the Lord telling us God is of the living not the dead in Matthew 22:32, the prayers of the saints in Revelation, there are some of us who see the Theotokos (the Virgin Mary) in Revelation 12 etc accompany our prayer for the salvation of ourselves & our neighbor as part of the call to pray for all people as St. Paul preaches 1st Timothy 2:1.

Thank you. A few of those I recalled and specifically read with an eye to looking for Orthodox theology, but several others I had not recalled. Thank you for the list. I will keep looking.
 
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Resha Caner

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Maybe I'm too late to the party, but within the context of the discussion of "assurance", Kylissa mentioned John several times - though I didn't notice that she quoted a particular verse.

So, I'm wondering how 1 John 5 (especially v.13) plays into this discussion.
 
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ArmyMatt

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So I am asking myself, does prayer = worship?

no, prayer means a petition. we petition each other all the time. petitioning saints goes back to the earliest centuries. in Lazarus and the rich man, the rich man petitions (prays to) Abraham and he gets an answer. that is all it is.

And my mind goes (forgive me) to Saul calling up Samuel. I know that is a totally different thing, but it's the only example in Scripture I can think of where a living person speaks to a dead one.

it's in Maccabees as well (our OT is longer than most Protestant ones, since we include what is known as the Apocrypha)

Depending on exactly how Mary is regarded ... I can see giving her a place of prominence. I can see giving the Apostle John a place of prominence. But I do see Jesus as having a special place among men that no other, including Mary, can ever approach in terms of Who He is, and what He has done for us.

seems you got it. relative to us she is lightyears ahead, realtive to her Son she is merely a creature like the rest of us. even the most highly exalted of creatures, is a creature and NOT the Creator.
 
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Maybe I'm too late to the party, but within the context of the discussion of "assurance", Kylissa mentioned John several times - though I didn't notice that she quoted a particular verse.

So, I'm wondering how 1 John 5 (especially v.13) plays into this discussion.

I'm looking for any comments on what I addressed off-topic (the issues I have with Orthodox theology) but I don't mind discussing "assurance" further.

John just seems full of assurances, which is why I didn't quote one. I think the passage you mentioned talks about one of my greatest "assurances" but tbh it's a little hard to understand perfectly what it means, because of the way it's worded. At least it is for me.

I take this part out of it, leading up for context:

6 This is the One who came by water and blood, Jesus Christ; not with the water only, but with the water and with the blood. It is the Spirit who testifies, because the Spirit is the truth. 7 For there are three that testify: 8 the Spirit and the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement. 9 If we receive the testimony of men, the testimony of God is greater; for the testimony of God is this, that He has testified concerning His Son. 10 The one who believes in the Son of God has the testimony in himself; the one who does not believe God has made Him a liar, because he has not believed in the testimony that God has given concerning His Son. 11 And the testimony is this, that God has given us eternal life, and this life is in His Son. 12 He who has the Son has the life; he who does not have the Son of God does not have the life. 13 These things I have written to you who believe in the name of the Son of God, so that you may know that you have eternal life.

The beginning is a bit confusing to me, but I am reading it at least to be that the Holy Spirit testifies within us (and is in agreement with the Son? the water and the blood? Or does this speak of Baptism and the shedding of His blood?), so that we know we have eternal life. That isn't the verse I might have chosen, but it is one evidence I believe I have.

And if perhaps you are focusing on it saying "you have eternal life" as in "already decided"? I know that isn't the Orthodox position, but I wouldn't presume to comment beyond that.

I'd be interested in the Orthodox point of view as well. Thanks for asking the question. :)
 
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Resha Caner

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I'd be interested in the Orthodox point of view as well. Thanks for asking the question.

Given the forum rules, I don't think I'm allowed to present my view. If you ask this in the Lutheran forum, I can reply. But like you, here I'm just asking the question.
 
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~Anastasia~

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no, prayer means a petition. we petition each other all the time. petitioning saints goes back to the earliest centuries. in Lazarus and the rich man, the rich man petitions (prays to) Abraham and he gets an answer. that is all it is.

Yes, I have to agree, that is why I was asking myself that. To pray does not equate to worship. That doesn't mean it's settled in my mind (sorry but I must be honest) and yet my main disagreement with praying to is that I was equating it with worshipping of, and once I realized that, I see that that comparison at least, is unfair.

I hadn't thought of the rich man petitioning Abraham. You have a point but ... the rich man was no longer alive at that point either. But it is an example nonetheless, and I thank you for bringing it to my attention.


it's in Maccabees as well (our OT is longer than most Protestant ones, since we include what is known as the Apocrypha)

I'm aware of the Apocrypha, but I think I have only read bits of the Macabees (I think I was looking for information on the lamps lasting?) and the extended part of Daniel.

I've also read the Gospel of Thomas and part of the book of Enoch at some point, but those are not considered canonical by the Orthodox church, are they? It's been a long time since I read them, but I must say the Gospel of Thomas seemed to say some odd things to my ears back then.



seems you got it. relative to us she is lightyears ahead, realtive to her Son she is merely a creature like the rest of us. even the most highly exalted of creatures, is a creature and NOT the Creator.

Hmmmmm. Well, yes, relative to us, I can understand that. And I don't have a problem I can see with referring to Mary as the bearer of God, since I believe she was. I think there may be implications of that I have not read and understood, but from a simplistic point of view, Christ WAS God and I believe He WAS God when in the womb, since He was conceived of the Holy Spirit, so I can't see a way to argue against that point.

However ... I have not yet explored the Catholic ideas that I have heard of, and may not even be accurate (I've been told Catholics believe many things that turned out to be false charges) ... but I have heard that they regard Mary as somehow cooperating with Christ on an equal level in the process of redemption. If that is what "co-redemptrix" means. If it is a matter of elevating Mary's role in our redemption to the role of Christ (or indeed, really, in having any other role than being the way in which God chose for Christ to enter the world), then I believe I would have a problem with it.

A thought occurs to me? I so very much do not wish to disparage any branch of the church, but at some point it becomes necessary to discuss what one believes and does not believe. But something occurs to me? I have not yet verified those things about the Catholic church that I believe I could not agree with, but if they are true ... is it possible that these are areas in which they departed from Orthodoxy? It is my understanding that the Catholic church came out of Orthodoxy, and I am sure there must be doctrinal differences. I know of a few, but I have not fully understood all at this point. (It seems every time I look it up, I mostly find the Pope and the filoque.)

Well, that may not have been necessary. But as I said, I need to understand if Mary is given any distinct role in salvation other than having been the mother of Christ, and the means by which He entered the world.

Thank you for your replies.
 
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~Anastasia~

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Given the forum rules, I don't think I'm allowed to present my view. If you ask this in the Lutheran forum, I can reply. But like you, here I'm just asking the question.

I haven't gotten around to asking this particular question of the Lutherans. I guess it just was rather glaring to me in the Orthodox comments I've seen (and a misunderstanding on my part it would seem) so I went ahead and asked here.

If you're interested to comment, I will place it in the Lutheran section.
 
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No. If you're interested, I was letting you know what to do.

I was just curious to get an answer to that specific verse.

Generally speaking, 'round these parts if you're not being argumentative and trying to debate and stuff, we don't take issue with people telling us their point of view and letting us know where they're coming from. We tend to take kindly to folks with good attitudes, regardless of the topic.
 
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ArmyMatt

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I've also read the Gospel of Thomas and part of the book of Enoch at some point, but those are not considered canonical by the Orthodox church, are they?

Enoch is weird but is quoted by Jude in his epistle. the Gospel of Thomas is gnostic, was not written by Thomas and is not Christian (that is what gnostics do)

is it possible that these are areas in which they departed from Orthodoxy?

yeah those are some of the ways, but there are many more. most folks only think that it is the Pope and the filioque and if we fixed those two all others would work themselves out. God forgive me, but I don't think so. there is much that divides us.
 
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buzuxi02

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John just seems full of assurances, which is why I didn't quote one. I think the passage you mentioned talks about one of my greatest "assurances" but tbh it's a little hard to understand perfectly what it means, because of the way it's worded. At least it is for me.

I take this part out of it, leading up for context:

6 This is the One who came by water and blood, Jesus Christ; not with the water only, but with the water and with the blood. It is the Spirit who testifies, because the Spirit is the truth. 7 For there are three that testify: 8 the Spirit and the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement. 9 If we receive the testimony of men, the testimony of God is greater; for the testimony of God is this, that He has testified concerning His Son. 10 The one who believes in the Son of God has the testimony in himself; the one who does not believe God has made Him a liar, because he has not believed in the testimony that God has given concerning His Son. .[/U][/B]

The beginning is a bit confusing to me, but I am reading it at least to be that the Holy Spirit testifies within us (and is in agreement with the Son? the water and the blood? Or does this speak of Baptism and the shedding of His blood?), so that we know we have eternal life. That isn't the verse I might have chosen, but it is one evidence I believe I have.

And if perhaps you are focusing on it saying "you have eternal life" as in "already decided"? I know that isn't the Orthodox position, but I wouldn't presume to comment beyond that.
. :)



Your on the right track. The Spirit the Water and the Blood are the three sacraments.

That's is the laying on of hands (chrismation), baptism, and the Holy Eucharist. It is the three mysteries that impart grace unto the believer. And yes that Holy Spirit is within us

Baptism and the reception of the Holy Spirit (through the laying on of hands) hav always been two mysteries linked together which initiates the christian into the body of Christ:

"Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us. By the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit. Which He shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our savior. That being justified by his grace we should be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life. "(Titus 3.5)

But not only water and Spirit but blood as well. When the roman soldier pierced Christ's side he shed both water and blood. In my previous post I quoted from Hebrew 6, here is the wider quotation:

..." Of the doctrine of baptisms and of laying on of hands, and of resurrection of the dead and of eternal judgment. And this will we do, if God permits. For it is impossible for those who were onced enlightened (baptism) and have tasted of the heavenly gift (the blood in the cup), and were made partakers of the Holy Spirit (laying n of hands)." (Hebrews 6.2-4)


Now in 1 John the problem was that false teaching arose that denied the humanity of Christ (See 1Jn 4.2-3). This false teaching ripped the Church apart because it began as an internal heresy; "They went out from us, but they were not of us, for if they had been of us, they would of no doubt continued with us: but they went out that they might be made manifest that they were not all of us. But ye have an unction (chrismation) from the Holy One, and ye know all things." (John 2.18-20)

John is not saying that The Holy Spirit spontaneously teaches everyone as they please, if it were so then the many antichrists that went forth from the church would also claim the same and be assured of eternal life. Instead John explains that the Holy Spirit preserves in each individual the original true teaching without innovations. If one departs from the original gospel he loses the Holy Spirit:

"Let therefore that abide in you which you have heard from the beginning. If that which you have heard from the beginning shall remain in you , you shall also continue in the Son and in the Father. These things have I written unto you, concerning them that seduce you. But the anointing which you have received (chrismation) of him abides in you, and you need no man teaching you, but as the same anointing teaches you all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it taught you, you shall abide in Him." . (1JN 2.24-27)


Basically this letter was written for a church community decimated by heresy. The heretics were also the teachers of the people and they led many astray, the teachers were the 'seducers' who were spreading a false gospel and could not be trusted any longer. Joh instructs that one abides in the Holy Spirit as long as the christian retains the gospel as it was given to him from the beginning. You continue in the Father and the Son only if you preserve that which you heard from the beginning not the new teachings of the heretics who temporarily hijacked this particular church and caused distrust and confusion as to what the truth was. The truth was the original message they received from the beginning without addition or alteration.

Now back to the Spirit, and the Water and the blood. :


"If any man thirst let him come unto me and drink. He that believes on me as the scripture has said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water. But this He spoke of the Spirit, which those that believe on Him should receive, for the Holy Spirit had not yet been given because Jesus was not yet glorified (the shedding of His blood)." (John 7.38-39)
 
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buzuxi02

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I'm aware of the Apocrypha, but I think I have only read bits of the Macabees (I think I was looking for information on the lamps lasting?) and the extended part of Daniel.

I've also read the Gospel of Thomas and part of the book of Enoch at some point, but those are not considered canonical by the Orthodox church, are they? It's been a long time since I read them, but I must say the Gospel of Thomas seemed to say some odd things to my ears back then.

Just to clarify, Maccabees and the extended Daniel your referring to are deutero-canonical books. The books of Thomas and Enoch are apocrypha and treated as pseudographical. meaning non-canonical and are rejected.



Hmmmmm. Well, yes, relative to us, I can understand that. And I don't have a problem I can see with referring to Mary as the bearer of God, since I believe she was. I think there may be implications of that I have not read and understood, but from a simplistic point of view, Christ WAS God and I believe He WAS God when in the womb, since He was conceived of the Holy Spirit, so I can't see a way to argue against that point.


Correct, The title 'Theotokos' is NOT a Mariological title, it is a Christological title. It was formulated most likely in Alexandria against three groups:

1. Those that denied the divinity of Christ, and considered him a mere man. The Cerinthians believed that the divine Christ entered the human Jesus at his baptism at the Jordan then left him before the crucifixion. Others denied any divinity in Christ.

2. Those that denied the humanity of Christ (like the Docetist sect and to a lesser extant the Marcionites) and argued that Christ was an apparition and took nothing from Mary. They argued that a virgin birth can only presuppose that Mary emitted a light from Her womb. Thus Christ being a phantom took no DNA from Mary.

3. The Nestorian heresy. Nestorians believed that Christ was two persons. That the second person of the Trinity assumed the child of Mary as a sort of receptacle. Christ was basically a human person loosely united by the divinity of the Logos that could be differentiated.

The term Theotokos puts to rest all three heresies mentioned above. Theotokos (God-bearer) means that God came down from heaven and entered the womb of Mary and took His humanity from her, and made it his very own in a very real hypostatic union. The one divine person of Christ was truly born man and truly has assumed humanity and that humanity is derived from His mother Mary.
 
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Just to clarify, Maccabees and the extended Daniel your referring to are deutero-canonical books. The books of Thomas and Enoch are apocrypha and treated as pseudographical. meaning non-canonical and are rejected.

Thank you (and to ArmyMatt as well). Yes, the Maccabees and the extra part of Daniel read entirely differently to me than Thomas and Enoch. Especially Thomas, which I know I read all of it, and it's been a while, but I felt very uneasy about it. It makes Jesus into something different from the Jesus I know from the Gospels. I am much reassured to know that it is not accepted.

I thought I had heard all of the books referred to as apocrypha, but that may just be a protestant way of referring to them? I'll be honest, I wanted to know why the Bible has different numbers of books, who decided and why. I'm still reading on that, and not sure who to trust. But I wonder if what I've read so far is true.




Correct, The title 'Theotokos' is NOT a Mariological title, it is a Christological title. It was formulated most likely in Alexandria against three groups:

1. Those that denied the divinity of Christ, and considered him a mere man. The Cerinthians believed that the divine Christ entered the human Jesus at his baptism at the Jordan then left him before the crucifixion. Others denied any divinity in Christ.

2. Those that denied the humanity of Christ (like the Docetist sect and to a lesser extant the Marcionites) and argued that Christ was an apparition and took nothing from Mary. They argued that a virgin birth can only presuppose that Mary emitted a light from Her womb. Thus Christ being a phantom took no DNA from Mary.

3. The Nestorian heresy. Nestorians believed that Christ was two persons. That the second person of the Trinity assumed the child of Mary as a sort of receptacle. Christ was basically a human person loosely united by the divinity of the Logos that could be differentiated.

The term Theotokos puts to rest all three heresies mentioned above. Theotokos (God-bearer) means that God came down from heaven and entered the womb of Mary and took His humanity from her, and made it his very own in a very real hypostatic union. The one divine person of Christ was truly born man and truly has assumed humanity and that humanity is derived from His mother Mary.

Thank you for explaining that. I don't know what "Mariology" is, I've seen the category under GT, but there is so much to learn, I don't understand many, many terms yet.

What I am glad to see is that the focus is on defining who Christ is, rather than on assigning Mary an office that I am uncomfortable in giving her.

As the "Bearer of God" I am perfectly comfortable, because to say otherwise is to deny Christ as God in the womb, at the very least.

I wasn't aware of the particular heresies, but it is helpful for me to learn, little by little, of the reasons why certain things are said or done, and I knew that there must have been disagreements and problems facing the church from the very beginning.

Thank you very much for the explanations.
 
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ArmyMatt

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I thought I had heard all of the books referred to as apocrypha, but that may just be a protestant way of referring to them? I'll be honest, I wanted to know why the Bible has different numbers of books, who decided and why. I'm still reading on that, and not sure who to trust. But I wonder if what I've read so far is true.

well, it's historic fact that the Septuigent (the longer, Greek OT) was the one from the time of Christ that He would have used around Galilee. so every time He quotes from the OT, He is quoting from the Greek OT. the Hebrew one which has fewer books was retranslated back into Hebrew (none of the original Hebrew have survived) a while later. when Martin Luther tranlated into German, he had two OT's to pick from and he wrongly assumed the Hebrew was the older. so he took the books he thought was extra, stuck them together in the middle, and it has been called the Apocrypha.

so the longer OT is actually the version of Christ and His Apostles.
 
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well, it's historic fact that the Septuigent (the longer, Greek OT) was the one from the time of Christ that He would have used around Galilee. so every time He quotes from the OT, He is quoting from the Greek OT. the Hebrew one which has fewer books was retranslated back into Hebrew (none of the original Hebrew have survived) a while later. when Martin Luther tranlated into German, he had two OT's to pick from and he wrongly assumed the Hebrew was the older. so he took the books he thought was extra, stuck them together in the middle, and it has been called the Apocrypha.

so the longer OT is actually the version of Christ and His Apostles.

Thank you for that. It sounds much less biased than some of what I found online.
 
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Gxg (G²)

Pilgrim/Monastic on the Road to God (Psalm 84:1-7)
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We understand matters like intercessory prayer among the earthly & heavenly living as expressed in the totality of worship indicated in the Bible. The heavenly cloud of witnesses in Hebrews 12, the presence of Moses & Elijah at the Transfiguration, the Lord telling us God is of the living not the dead in Matthew 22:32, the prayers of the saints in Revelation, there are some of us who see the Theotokos (the Virgin Mary) in Revelation 12 etc accompany our prayer for the salvation of ourselves & our neighbor as part of the call to pray for all people as St. Paul preaches 1st Timothy 2:1.
Prayer in many ways is about joining into a community rather than living out as a lone wolf traveling - and thank goodness others are praying for and with us.
 
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well, it's historic fact that the Septuigent (the longer, Greek OT) was the one from the time of Christ that He would have used around Galilee. so every time He quotes from the OT, He is quoting from the Greek OT. the Hebrew one which has fewer books was retranslated back into Hebrew (none of the original Hebrew have survived) a while later. when Martin Luther tranlated into German, he had two OT's to pick from and he wrongly assumed the Hebrew was the older. so he took the books he thought was extra, stuck them together in the middle, and it has been called the Apocrypha.

so the longer OT is actually the version of Christ and His Apostles.

Btw, may I have your permission to quote your post in GT in a thread about Biblical canons I have there? I can paste or paraphrase, as you wish, and put your name with it or not, as you prefer? Just let me know when you get a chance. I would hope to gather the info into one thread, and I appreciate what you've said here.

Thank you so much, either way.
 
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