The angel of the Lord acts with the full authority of God, has attributes that only God has, and is referred to interchangeably with God, such as in
Genesis 16:7-12,
Genesis 22:1-18,
Exodus 3:2-6,
Exodus 14:13-20,
Exodus 23:20-22,
Judges 2:1-4,
Judges 6:11-24, and
Judges 13:3-22.
God can give anyone authority to carry out His will. He can also work through anyone to perform miracles as He did with Moses, Yeshua, Peter, etc. YHWH’s angel was sent as His representative or shaliach. As such, the angel could speak in YHWH’s name and with His full authority. The prophets do the same thing quite often. Therefore, Malachi can say, "Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me..." (Mal.3:1), yet, no one would dare say Malachi was Yahweh.
The Jewish understanding of this is important to note here. It is called the “law of agency”. "The Encyclopedia of the Jewish Religion," Adama Books, New York, 1986, pg.15 reads, "The main point of the Jewish law of agency is expressed in the dictum "A person's agent is regarded as the person himself." Almighty Yahweh appointed the Angel of Yahweh, as His agent. As such, anything he did was regarded as though the Almighty Himself did it.
If no one can see God and live (
Exodus 33:20) and no one has seen God, but only the Son (
John 1:18), then who ate lunch with Abraham and who wrestled with Jacob?
If you believe the Son is God and that he was the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, then you have people seeing God.
Abraham saw three men and one of them was Adonai, which is a title only used for God (
Genesis 18:1-3). We are told that Isaac wrestled with a man, yet Isaac identified him as God (
Genesis 32:24-30). However, in
Hosea 12:2-5, it says that Jacob wrestled with the angel and prevailed, and that the angel is referred to as the Lord, the God of hosts.
You
assume the Son ate with Abraham and wrestled with Jacob. You read him into the text. That is a hermeneutical no no. If Abraham ate with the Son who is God, then he saw God. The fact is, he ate with God’s angel who was his agent. Men can look upon angel’s, but they cannot look upon God.
In
Isaiah 6:1-5, Isaiah saw the King, the Lord of hosts sitting on the throne and
John 12:41 says that Isaiah saw Jesus' glory and spoke about him.
A superficial reading leads one to believe that the "his" and "him" of verse 41 refers to Yeshua and ties in with verse 37. For the sake of clarity I will quote the verses with [brackets] designating the speaker.
Jn.12:37,38, "But though he [Yeshua] had done so many miracles before them, yet they believed not on him [Yeshua]: That the saying of Isaiah the prophet might be fulfilled, which he [Isaiah] spake, ‘
Lord [God], who hath believed our report? and to whom hath the arm of the YHWH been revealed?' (The underlined is a quote from Is.53:1. The "arm of Yahweh" is Isaiah's reference to the Messiah). The passage continues with verses 39-41; "Therefore they could not believe, because that Isaiah said again,
'He [Yahweh] hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I [Yahweh] should heal them.' These things said Isaiah, when he [Isaiah] saw his [Yahweh's] glory, and spake of him [Yahweh]." Verse 40 (underlined) is a quote from Is.6:10. John is quoting a second passage from Isaiah to show why they could not believe on Yeshua; because Yahweh blinded them. Verse 41 therefore, is referring to Is.6:10, not Is.53:1. In Is.6:1-3 Yahweh is seen in all His glory. That is the glory referred to in verse 41. It was not Yeshua's glory.
In
Genesis 28:13-20, YHWH spoke to Jacob in his dream, then Jacob anointed a pillar, called the place Bethel, and made a vow to God, yet in
Genesis 31:11-13 it says that the angel of God spoke to him and identified himself as the God of Bethel, where Jacob anointed a pillar and made a vow to him.
The angel spoke as YHWH’s agent. Also, note that in Gen 28:13, the angel said he was the God of Abraham and of Isaac. Acts 3:13 reveals to us that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob glorified His Son Yeshua. The Son is NOT the God of our fathers. YHWH is.
In
Daniel 3:22-28, the fourth person in the fiery furnace was the Son of God.
It says no such thing. The Hebrew uses the word “demah” (like/resembles). What would a pagan king no about what the Son of God looks like? I prefer the ASV and NASB’s translation:
Dan 3:25 He answered and said, Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the aspect of the fourth is like a son of the gods.
In
Malachi 3:1, in a prophecy about the first coming of the Messiah, God says that he will send His messenger and "malak" means "angel".
Malak can refer to angels or to men as in 2Sam 11:22-23. In fact, the KJV uses “messenger” as opposed to “angel” whenever “malak” is used referring to a non-angelic being as in Mal 3:1.
In
John 5:39, Jesus said that Scriptures testify of him, so if Jesus wasn't the memra or the angel of the Lord, then what do you think he was referring to?
There are so many other things he could be referring to; the Passover Lamb, the wave sheaf, sin offerings, the lid on the mercy seat, and probably hundreds more.
Furthermore, the angel of the Lord ceased to appear after Jesus became incarnated.
Not true. Here is one example that proves Yeshua was not “the angel of the Lord” (there are at least four other appearances of him in Acts).
Mat_28:2 And, behold, there was a great earthquake: for the angel of the Lord descended from heaven, and came and rolled back the stone from the door, and sat upon it.
The angel went on to say, “Fear not ye: for I know that ye seek Yeshua, which was crucified. He is not here: for he is risen, as he said. Come, see the place where the Lord lay.