2 Pet 3's cynics are in his generation

Notrash

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I don't doubt that...but not in reference to 2 Peter 3.

This is improper correlation of the scriptures. Nothing is presumed by BW. He simply makes the point that Peter isn't speaking of AD 70...and he isn't.

No sir...the Mosaic covenant isn't even in view in this passage.

No. This has NOTHING to do with the Mosaic Covenant...nothing.

EWe'll remain in firm disagreement. compare 2 pet 3:10,12 with deut 32:22. Deut 32 is the last generation if the mosaic covt after the new prophet and the circumcision of the heart. Deut 18 and 30 respectivaly and confirmed in Acts 3:22-24 and Romans 10:5-8.

Ps 90 was written by Moses and I'll admit that it isn't a direct reference to the mosaic covt; but it talks of an age being removed by a flood. This was also the foretype of the way the mosaic covt was to end. Dan 9 and Is 59.

No more time right now; but heavens and earth are terms used to described the politucal and religiius "atmosphere" of a set of ordinances over a certain "domain" see Job 38:33 for beginning foundation. Thus new heavens and earth here and in Is 65 and 66 are ordinances and domain of the new covt (the kaw of faith and the indwelling) contrast agaimst those of the mosaic covt. Just as I'm saying that he made a new covt, he makes the former old. Yhe 'New' is said to be not like the mosaic covt in Jer 31. New Jerusalem/old jerusalem; Gal 4.
 
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Interplanner

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sorry I missed the post above about the present tense of Peter; I mean, sorry I failed to mention that about 2 Pet 3. That is astute that you noticed it. He is speaking abuot present reality, and he is speaking about it in a way that he hopes will answer current people. It is not written detachedly.
 
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Interplanner

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As for whether it is about 70 AD: the plain meaning of Mt 24 & //s is that the total end of the world would happen right after the DofJ. Prob many people in Judea that thought was the end of the world! But the type of answer Peter is giving is about the coming, which would have been right after that, and the delay is explained because it needed to be. This all seems very normal but I'm open to finding something wrong with the picture.

At least I don't think anyone thinks the coming is the first coming. I don't think Peter would have gone into detail about the end of time and the new earth if it had.

The latter times as exprressions go is no reason to leap to (our) future.
 
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ebedmelech

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As for whether it is about 70 AD: the plain meaning of Mt 24 & //s is that the total end of the world would happen right after the DofJ. Prob many people in Judea that thought was the end of the world! But the type of answer Peter is giving is about the coming, which would have been right after that, and the delay is explained because it needed to be. This all seems very normal but I'm open to finding something wrong with the picture.

At least I don't think anyone thinks the coming is the first coming. I don't think Peter would have gone into detail about the end of time and the new earth if it had.

The latter times as exprressions go is no reason to leap to (our) future.

Peter makes it very clear this is something that is based on God's timing...and he makes that point saying that "with the Lord one day is like a thousand years, and a thousand years like one day."

That tells us we cannot know God's timing...moreover the context comes from the judgment of the first world, where God only saved Noah and his family.

He then uses the term "the day of the Lord", which is a day of judgment. While I do agree Jesus came in judgment of Jerusalem...the reason this passage doesn't refer to that is because Peter then goes to the creation of a new heaven and earth...which is after judgment.

Just take time to read the passage...it's the last day!

Peter even mentions Paul's letters which certainly must include the 1 Thess 4:9-17 which is viewed by many erroneously to be a pre-tribulation rapture, when it's clearly a rapture of believers on the last day.
 
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