Mathew 27:9

Azad · #1 24th December 2003, 06:42 AM

Anybody has an explanation for this???

mathew 27:9 attributes a prophecy to Jeremiah, when it's actually found in Zecheriah 11:12-13

How can it be true?
if MAthew was inspired, he shouldn't have made such a mistake!!

jbarcher · #2 24th December 2003, 01:04 PM

I replied to this in the Christian Apologetic forum.

Serapha · #3 26th December 2003, 02:29 AM

Originally Posted by Azad

Anybody has an explanation for this???

mathew 27:9 attributes a prophecy to Jeremiah, when it's actually found in Zecheriah 11:12-13

How can it be true?
if MAthew was inspired, he shouldn't have made such a mistake!!

Hi there!

And I have answered this question twice for you BEFORE you posted it here (again).

But I don't mind telling you again and again..... there are no passages in the Bible that cannot be reconciled.

~serapha~

Serapha · #4 26th December 2003, 02:35 AM

From my response to your posting in "Questions in Christianity"

Hi there!

"Jerom affirms, that in an Hebrew volume, being an apocryphal work of Jeremy, which was shown him by one of the Nazarene sect, he read these words verbatim: so that though they do not stand in the writings of Jeremy, which are canonical Scripture, yet in an apocryphal book of his...."

It never ceases to amaze me that professing Christians will not seek to reconcile the "Scriptures".

for a more complete explanation...

http://bible1.crosswalk.com/Comment...pter=27&verse=9

~serapha~

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