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Eschatology - Endtimes & Prophecy Forum The Endtimes & Prophecy Forum for the discussion of future events. No full preterist views. Partial preterists welcomed.

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Unread 6th February 2014, 09:15 PM
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Bible The Last Day

I have a question which is based upon John's gospel where he speaks of the resurrection on the last day.

Is the Last Day the Day of the LORD?

Would it be the thousand years mentioned in Revelation 20?

Is that what John means when he writes about the resurrection on the last day?

Thanks for all your help in Christ Jesus,

OT
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Unread 6th February 2014, 10:46 PM
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Originally Posted by Old Timer View Post
I have a question which is based upon John's gospel where he speaks of the resurrection on the last day.

Is the Last Day the Day of the LORD?

Would it be the thousand years mentioned in Revelation 20?

Is that what John means when he writes about the resurrection on the last day?

Thanks for all your help in Christ Jesus,

OT
I've never been all that clear but I think it's the day when Christ returns. God controls the earth from that day forward and while the Thousand year reign of Christ might be considered, or sometimes referred to in that way, I think it's the Parosia.

I could pursue the subject if you like, depending on what your trying to nail down here.

Grace and peace,
Mark
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Unread 6th February 2014, 11:05 PM
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Originally Posted by mark kennedy View Post
I've never been all that clear but I think it's the day when Christ returns. God controls the earth from that day forward and while the Thousand year reign of Christ might be considered, or sometimes referred to in that way, I think it's the Parosia.

I could pursue the subject if you like, depending on what your trying to nail down here.

Grace and peace,
Mark
Hi Mark and thanks for your reply.

My question concerns the resurrection of the dead. John's gospel appears to speak of the resurrection as being on the last day. Revelation 20 if taken literally (and I do believe that it is a literal thousand years) speaks of the first resurrection and then another resurrection after the thousand years are finished.

So how can John say that it is the last day?

One person told me that a day with the LORD is as a thousand years and that this is what the last day actually means, the thousand years mentioned in Revelation 20.

That's why I'm wondering if that's what the Day of the LORD means? I also wonder if that is the same as the Day of Jesus Christ?

Just wondering about stuff like this. I realize that these are difficult things and so I hope that some people will share their thoughts on these things.

I guess it makes sense to me that a Day with the LORD is a thousand years as this is biblical, I just wonder if that's what the majority of believers hold to today. It doesn't necessarily need to be the majority, but rather something that is valid amongst a fairly large group of Christians etc.

Thanks again in Christ Jesus for all your help and thoughts on these things.

OT
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Unread 6th February 2014, 11:24 PM
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The last verse in Daniel 12, records a promise given to Daniel about his own personal resurrection.
Daniel 12:13 (NKJV) "But you, go your way till the end; for you shall rest, and will arise to your inheritance at the end of the days."
The statements of verses 1, 7, 11, and 12 tie the resurrection to the time immediately following the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD.
What Daniel had written was well ingrained into the thinking of the Jews. We see from Jesus' discussion with Martha that Martha had no doubt as to when the resurrection would be.
John 11:23-24 (NKJV) Jesus said to her, "Your brother will rise again." 24 Martha said to Him, "I know that he will rise again in the resurrection at the last day."
Jesus taught that the resurrection would happen on the last day:
John 6:39-40 (NKJV) "This is the will of the Father who sent Me, that of all He has given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day. 40 "And this is the will of Him who sent Me, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in Him may have everlasting life; and I will raise him up at the last day."
John 6:44 (NKJV) "No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up at the last day.
John 6:54 (NKJV) "Whoever eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day.
When is the last day? To the Jews, time was divided into two great periods, the Mosaic Age and the Messianic Age. The Messiah was viewed as one who would bring in a new world. The period of the Messiah was, therefore, correctly characterized by the Synagogue as "the world to come." All through the New Testament, we see two ages in contrast: "This age" and the "age to come."
1 Peter 1:20 (NKJV) He indeed was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you
Jesus came during the last days of the age that was the Old Covenant age, the Jewish age. That age came to an end with the destruction of the temple in AD 70.
Hebrews 1:1-2 (NKJV) God, who at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, 2 has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds;
Jesus was speaking in the last days. What last days? The last days of the Bible's "this age" -- the Old Covenant age. ~Pastor D. Curtis
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Unread 6th February 2014, 11:44 PM
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Originally Posted by Old Timer View Post
Hi Mark and thanks for your reply.

My question concerns the resurrection of the dead. John's gospel appears to speak of the resurrection as being on the last day. Revelation 20 if taken literally (and I do believe that it is a literal thousand years) speaks of the first resurrection and then another resurrection after the thousand years are finished.
The resurrection of believers happens when Christ returns. The judgment of unbelievers and the children of perdition and what I call, the undecided, doesn't happen for another thousand years:

For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so God will bring with Him those who sleep in Jesus.

For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will by no means precede those who are asleep. For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. Then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And thus we shall always be with the Lord. (2 Thess. 4:14-17)
So how can John say that it is the last day?
I'm not sure what you mean by 'last day':
But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection. Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years. And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison, (Rev. 20: 5-7)
That's when the Tribulation Saints are raised and traditionally the entire Church was thought to be raised at the same time with them. There are some really interesting questions that arise from the Dispensationalists view that the rapture of the Church happens seven years previously. But as far as the 'last day', I would have to see the context the expression is used in.

One person told me that a day with the LORD is as a thousand years and that this is what the last day actually means, the thousand years mentioned in Revelation 20.
It can mean that and a Thousand Years can mean a Thousand Years. There is an old adage, a text without a context is a pretext. If you are careful and look at the build up do and the flow from the text the Scriptures usually make it pretty clear what it means.

That's why I'm wondering if that's what the Day of the LORD means? I also wonder if that is the same as the Day of Jesus Christ?
It's the day Christ returns, the body of Christ is raised and the enemies of God are destroyed. It's just like in Genesis where it says day and it means an actual day. I'm not trying to be condescending but the way the expression is used in Scripture is determined is that the clear, literal meaning of the term is the meaning unless there is good reason to question it and in Revelations 20, there just isn't any.

Just wondering about stuff like this. I realize that these are difficult things and so I hope that some people will share their thoughts on these things.
Oh I'm sure they will and there's a lot a person could learn from those kind of discussions. Just do your own thinking on it and every now and then bow your head and ask God for a little guidance, he is pretty God about helping believers understand the Scriptures.

I guess it makes sense to me that a Day with the LORD is a thousand years as this is biblical, I just wonder if that's what the majority of believers hold to today. It doesn't necessarily need to be the majority, but rather something that is valid amongst a fairly large group of Christians etc.

Thanks again in Christ Jesus for all your help and thoughts on these things.

OT
A Day with the Lord is as a Thousand years simply means God doesn't change and whether it's a day or a thousand years with God it changes nothing:

But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. (2 Peter 3:8)
That's the passage brother, you really ought to have a look at it in it's natural context. Peter is telling believers, who are naturally anxious to see the return of Christ, aren't we all? Peter thought it would happen immediately following the resurrection, in fact the Apostles were heart broken to hear Jesus say he was leaving them in the Upper Room. As a matter of fact Peter didn't think Jesus even needed to go to the cross but Jesus called him Satan for saying it, Peter never brought it up again after that.

Peter is telling believers that God isn't being slow, time itself is irrelevant. The Parosia (Appearing aka return) of Christ happens on the day God choose, not when we think it should because if it was up to us it would have been yesterday.

Grace and peace,
Mark
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Unread 7th February 2014, 02:31 AM
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Originally Posted by coraline View Post
The statements of verses 1, 7, 11, and 12 tie the resurrection to the time immediately following the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD.
Hi coraline and thank you for the reply.

While I completely disagree that the resurrection happened in 70AD, I can understand that this was an important time in history.

Forgive me if that's not what you're saying, but again, if it is then I completetly disagree.
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Unread 7th February 2014, 02:45 AM
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Originally Posted by mark kennedy View Post
The resurrection of believers happens when Christ returns. The judgment of unbelievers and the children of perdition and what I call, the undecided, doesn't happen for another thousand years:
I guess that's the problem I am trying to address here. How can John's gospel speak of the resurrection as happening on the last day if there are a thousand years between the two? John's gospel does appear to speak of both the resurrection of those who have done good and those who have done evil as taking place at the last day.

I'm not sure what you mean by 'last day':
But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection. Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years. And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison,


I'm not sure that I do either. Is it a 24 hour day we are talking about or is it a thousand year day?
That's when the Tribulation Saints are raised and traditionally the entire Church was thought to be raised at the same time with them. There are some really interesting questions that arise from the Dispensationalists view that the rapture of the Church happens seven years previously. But as far as the 'last day', I would have to see the context the expression is used in.
See John chapters 5 and 6 where it speaks of the resurrection at the last day.

It can mean that and a Thousand Years can mean a Thousand Years. There is an old adage, a text without a context is a pretext. If you are careful and look at the build up do and the flow from the text the Scriptures usually make it pretty clear what it means.
Within the context of Rev 20 I would say that it appears to me that it is a literal thousand years. I've been told by some folks that the Day of the Lord is a thousand years, it's the last day, the day of his rest.

It's the day Christ returns, the body of Christ is raised and the enemies of God are destroyed. It's just like in Genesis where it says day and it means an actual day. I'm not trying to be condescending but the way the expression is used in Scripture is determined is that the clear, literal meaning of the term is the meaning unless there is good reason to question it and in Revelations 20, there just isn't any.
That is what I often believed as well although I think that it means a thousand year day, and Genesis does have precedent pertaining to a day being a thousand years, because the LORD told Adam that he would die in that day when he ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. He died like 900 years later, right?

Oh I'm sure they will and there's a lot a person could learn from those kind of discussions. Just do your own thinking on it and every now and then bow your head and ask God for a little guidance, he is pretty God about helping believers understand the Scriptures.
Yes, I certainly need to pray more about these things and ask the LORD although it's helpful to me to see how other believers see these things.

A Day with the Lord is as a Thousand years simply means God doesn't change and whether it's a day or a thousand years with God it changes nothing:

That's the passage brother, you really ought to have a look at it in it's natural context. Peter is telling believers, who are naturally anxious to see the return of Christ, aren't we all? Peter thought it would happen immediately following the resurrection, in fact the Apostles were heart broken to hear Jesus say he was leaving them in the Upper Room. As a matter of fact Peter didn't think Jesus even needed to go to the cross but Jesus called him Satan for saying it, Peter never brought it up again after that.

Peter is telling believers that God isn't being slow, time itself is irrelevant. The Parosia (Appearing aka return) of Christ happens on the day God choose, not when we think it should because if it was up to us it would have been yesterday.

Grace and peace,
Mark
I used to think that as well, now I'm not so sure. It looks to me that the word of God is speaking of a literal thousand years in Revelation 20, and I think that it is the last day.

Peter speaks of the elements burning up with fervent heat in that day, and if you look at the end of Revelation 20, that happens at the end of the thousand years.

Thanks again for your help Mark, it is much appreciated. I'm just trying to get these things right in my mind.
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Unread 7th February 2014, 03:58 AM
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Old Timer said in post 1:

Is the Last Day the Day of the LORD?
Yes.

The last days began in the first century AD with Jesus' first coming (Hebrews 1:2) and the Holy Spirit's pouring out at the Pentecost in Acts 2 (Acts 2:16-17). The last days can be the last 3, roughly 1,000-year "days" (2 Peter 3:8) of the 7, roughly 1,000-year "days" from the creation of Adam in roughly 4,000 BC to the future end of the present earth and the creation of the new earth (Revelation 21:1) in roughly 3,000 AD. So the last "days" can be the roughly 3,000 years from Jesus' first coming to sometime after the future millennium (Revelation 20:4-6), which will be part of the last, roughly 1,000-year "day" (2 Peter 3:8), which could begin at Jesus' (never fulfilled) 2nd coming (1 Corinthians 1:7-8).

And the day of the Lord/Christ (2 Thessalonians 2:2) will begin at the Lord Jesus Christ's 2nd coming (1 Corinthians 1:7-8; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8; 2 Thessalonians 1:7-10), which won't occur until Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, "immediately after" the future tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8), which is when the rapture (the gathering together) of the church will occur (Matthew 24:29-31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6).

Old Timer said in post 1:

Is that what John means when he writes about the resurrection on the last day?
Yes, that's what those scriptures in John mean.

For in John 6:39-40 and John 12:48, the original Greek word translated as the last "day" (hemera, G2250) doesn't have to mean the last 24-hour day, but can be used figuratively to refer to a much longer period of time (e.g. see the Greek of 2 Corinthians 6:2; 2 Peter 3:8, and John 8:56). John 6:39-48 and John 12:48 will occur in the last period of time of this present earth, but they won't occur on the same 24-hour day (Revelation 20:5).

For when Jesus returns, only the church will be bodily resurrected and finally-judged (1 Corinthians 15:21-23, Revelation 20:5; Psalms 50:3-5, cf. Mark 13:27; Matthew 25:19-30; 2 Corinthians 5:10, Luke 12:45-48). The obedient part of the bodily resurrected church, including those in the church who had been beheaded by the Antichrist, will then reign on the earth with the returned Jesus for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Psalms 66:3-4, Psalms 72:8-11, Zechariah 14:3-21). Only sometime after the 1,000 years and the subsequent Gog/Magog rebellion are over (Revelation 20:7-10, Ezekiel chapters 38-39) will the rest of the dead (of all times) be bodily resurrected (Revelation 20:5) and finally-judged at the great white throne judgment (Revelation 20:11-15).

*******

Old Timer said in post 7:

John's gospel does appear to speak of both the resurrection of those who have done good and those who have done evil as taking place at the last day.
Regarding "resurrection of those who have done good and those who have done evil", are you thinking of John 5:28-29? If so, it wasn't until later (cf. John 16:12) that Jesus showed the apostle John that there will be two (still-unfulfilled) bodily resurrections separated by 1,000 years (Revelation 20:5). John 5:28-29 can include both of these, for the original Greek word translated as "hour" doesn't have to mean a literal hour, but can refer figuratively to any period of time. For example, the last "hour" of 1 John 2:18 (Greek) has been going on for the last 2,000 years. So the "hour" of everyone's still-future bodily resurrection (John 5:28-29) can easily span over a 1,000-year period (Revelation 20:5).

Also, at both the first and 2nd resurrection, some will undergo "the resurrection of life", while others will undergo "the resurrection of damnation" (John 5:29). For the first resurrection, at Jesus' never-fulfilled 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-53; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16), before the millennium (Revelation 20:4-6), will be of all those who became Christians (1 Corinthians 15:21-23). And some of them will lose their salvation at the 2nd coming (e.g. Luke 12:45-46), so that their resurrection will be a "resurrection of damnation" (John 5:29), a resurrection "unto shame and everlasting contempt" (Daniel 12:2), because of such things as unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-29), unrepentant laziness (Matthew 25:26,30), or apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8).

The 2nd resurrection, at the great white throne judgment (Revelation 20:11-15), after the future millennium and subsequent events are over (Revelation 20:7-15), will include all those of all times who never became Christians, and all those who became Christians during the millennium (Isaiah 66:19-21). At the great white throne judgment, those Christians (of all times) who will lose their salvation, and so will have their names blotted out of the book of life (Revelation 3:5), might be cast into the everlasting punishment of the lake of fire along with all non-Christians (Revelation 20:15,10, Matthew 25:41,46, Revelation 14:10-11, Mark 9:45-46).

Old Timer said in post 7:

Peter speaks of the elements burning up with fervent heat in that day, and if you look at the end of Revelation 20, that happens at the end of the thousand years.
That's right.

Regarding 2 Peter 3:10-13, in the day of the Lord will occur the destruction of heaven (the first heaven: the sky, the atmosphere) and the earth (the surface of the earth) at the great white throne judgment (Revelation 20:11, Revelation 21:1). And this will be followed by the creation of a new atmosphere and surface for the earth (2 Peter 3:13, Revelation 21:1) onto which New Jerusalem, God the Father's house (John 14:2, Revelation 21:2-3), will descend from the 3rd heaven (Revelation 21:2-3). But the day of the Lord won't immediately bring the destruction of earth's atmosphere and surface. For the day of the Lord will begin at Jesus' 2nd coming (1 Corinthians 1:7-8) as a thief (2 Peter 3:10a, Revelation 16:15). And after his 2nd coming, he will establish his kingdom physically on the earth with the bodily resurrected church for 1,000 years (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Psalms 66:3-4, Psalms 72:8-11, Zechariah 14:3-21).

And after the 1,000 years, the Gog/Magog rebellion will occur (Revelation 20:7-10, Ezekiel chapters 38-39). And after its defeat, at least 7 more years will occur (Ezekiel 39:9b), before the earth's atmosphere and surface are destroyed at the great white throne judgment (Revelation 20:11). All these events, from Jesus' 2nd coming to the great white throne judgment, will be part of the day of the Lord. For it's not a 24-hour day, but to God is like a 1,000-year "day" (2 Peter 3:8).
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Unread 7th February 2014, 03:59 AM
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coraline quoted Curtis in post 4:

Jesus came during the last days of the age that was the Old Covenant age, the Jewish age. That age came to an end with the destruction of the temple in AD 70.
The time of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law ended not at the destruction of the temple in 70 AD, but decades earlier, at the moment that Jesus died on the Cross (Matthew 27:50-51a) and abolished the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Hebrews 7:18-19), which was the same moment that he brought the New Covenant into effect (Matthew 26:28, Hebrews 9:15-17, Hebrews 10:19-20, Matthew 27:51a). So there was no transition period, no overlap at all (Hebrews 10:9b, Hebrews 7:12), between the time of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law and the time of the New Covenant.

Also, while the apostles asked Jesus about the end of the age (Matthew 24:3), note that he didn't tell them that the end of the age would occur at the destruction of the 2nd temple, or (as is sometimes claimed) before the future tribulation, or even at the end of the future tribulation, i.e. at his (post-tribulation) 2nd coming (Matthew 24:29-31), or when the end of the age would occur, just as Jesus didn't tell the apostles many other things during his ministry (John 16:12). It wouldn't be until much later that Jesus would show the apostle John, through the vision in the book of Revelation (given about 95 AD: Irenaeus, Against Heresies 5:30:3c), that the end of the age, when all the unsaved will be cast into the lake of fire (Matthew 13:40, Matthew 25:41, Revelation 20:15), won't occur until over 1,000 years after Jesus' (never fulfilled) 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:15).
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Unread 7th February 2014, 04:07 AM
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Originally Posted by Bible2 View Post
Yes.

The last days began in the first century AD with Jesus' first coming (Hebrews 1:2) and the Holy Spirit's pouring out at the Pentecost in Acts 2 (Acts 2:16-17). The last days can be the last 3, roughly 1,000-year "days" (2 Peter 3:8) of the 7, roughly 1,000-year "days" from the creation of Adam in roughly 4,000 BC to the future end of the present earth and the creation of the new earth (Revelation 21:1) in roughly 3,000 AD. So the last "days" can be the roughly 3,000 years from Jesus' first coming to sometime after the future millennium (Revelation 20:4-6), which will be part of the last, roughly 1,000-year "day" (2 Peter 3:8), which could begin at Jesus' (never fulfilled) 2nd coming (1 Corinthians 1:7-8).

And the day of the Lord/Christ (2 Thessalonians 2:2) will begin at the Lord Jesus Christ's 2nd coming (1 Corinthians 1:7-8; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8; 2 Thessalonians 1:7-10), which won't occur until Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, "immediately after" the future tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8), which is when the rapture (the gathering together) of the church will occur (Matthew 24:29-31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6).



Yes, that's what those scriptures in John mean.

For in John 6:39-40 and John 12:48, the original Greek word translated as the last "day" (hemera, G2250) doesn't have to mean the last 24-hour day, but can be used figuratively to refer to a much longer period of time (e.g. see the Greek of 2 Corinthians 6:2; 2 Peter 3:8, and John 8:56). John 6:39-48 and John 12:48 will occur in the last period of time of this present earth, but they won't occur on the same 24-hour day (Revelation 20:5).

For when Jesus returns, only the church will be bodily resurrected and finally-judged (1 Corinthians 15:21-23, Revelation 20:5; Psalms 50:3-5, cf. Mark 13:27; Matthew 25:19-30; 2 Corinthians 5:10, Luke 12:45-48). The obedient part of the bodily resurrected church, including those in the church who had been beheaded by the Antichrist, will then reign on the earth with the returned Jesus for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Psalms 66:3-4, Psalms 72:8-11, Zechariah 14:3-21). Only sometime after the 1,000 years and the subsequent Gog/Magog rebellion are over (Revelation 20:7-10, Ezekiel chapters 38-39) will the rest of the dead (of all times) be bodily resurrected (Revelation 20:5) and finally-judged at the great white throne judgment (Revelation 20:11-15).

*******



Regarding "resurrection of those who have done good and those who have done evil", are you thinking of John 5:28-29? If so, it wasn't until later (cf. John 16:12) that Jesus showed the apostle John that there will be two (still-unfulfilled) bodily resurrections separated by 1,000 years (Revelation 20:5). John 5:28-29 can include both of these, for the original Greek word translated as "hour" doesn't have to mean a literal hour, but can refer figuratively to any period of time. For example, the last "hour" of 1 John 2:18 (Greek) has been going on for the last 2,000 years. So the "hour" of everyone's still-future bodily resurrection (John 5:28-29) can easily span over a 1,000-year period (Revelation 20:5).

Also, at both the first and 2nd resurrection, some will undergo "the resurrection of life", while others will undergo "the resurrection of damnation" (John 5:29). For the first resurrection, at Jesus' never-fulfilled 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-53; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16), before the millennium (Revelation 20:4-6), will be of all those who became Christians (1 Corinthians 15:21-23). And some of them will lose their salvation at the 2nd coming (e.g. Luke 12:45-46), so that their resurrection will be a "resurrection of damnation" (John 5:29), a resurrection "unto shame and everlasting contempt" (Daniel 12:2), because of such things as unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-29), unrepentant laziness (Matthew 25:26,30), or apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8).

The 2nd resurrection, at the great white throne judgment (Revelation 20:11-15), after the future millennium and subsequent events are over (Revelation 20:7-15), will include all those of all times who never became Christians, and all those who became Christians during the millennium (Isaiah 66:19-21). At the great white throne judgment, those Christians (of all times) who will lose their salvation, and so will have their names blotted out of the book of life (Revelation 3:5), might be cast into the everlasting punishment of the lake of fire along with all non-Christians (Revelation 20:15,10, Matthew 25:41,46, Revelation 14:10-11, Mark 9:45-46).



That's right.

Regarding 2 Peter 3:10-13, in the day of the Lord will occur the destruction of heaven (the first heaven: the sky, the atmosphere) and the earth (the surface of the earth) at the great white throne judgment (Revelation 20:11, Revelation 21:1). And this will be followed by the creation of a new atmosphere and surface for the earth (2 Peter 3:13, Revelation 21:1) onto which New Jerusalem, God the Father's house (John 14:2, Revelation 21:2-3), will descend from the 3rd heaven (Revelation 21:2-3). But the day of the Lord won't immediately bring the destruction of earth's atmosphere and surface. For the day of the Lord will begin at Jesus' 2nd coming (1 Corinthians 1:7-8) as a thief (2 Peter 3:10a, Revelation 16:15). And after his 2nd coming, he will establish his kingdom physically on the earth with the bodily resurrected church for 1,000 years (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Psalms 66:3-4, Psalms 72:8-11, Zechariah 14:3-21).

And after the 1,000 years, the Gog/Magog rebellion will occur (Revelation 20:7-10, Ezekiel chapters 38-39). And after its defeat, at least 7 more years will occur (Ezekiel 39:9b), before the earth's atmosphere and surface are destroyed at the great white throne judgment (Revelation 20:11). All these events, from Jesus' 2nd coming to the great white throne judgment, will be part of the day of the Lord. For it's not a 24-hour day, but to God is like a 1,000-year "day" (2 Peter 3:8).
Wow Bible2, this is like a full course meal! It will take me some time to digest this although thanks for the lengthy response.
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