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23rd March 2011, 02:04 PM
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Reps: 1,828,251,263,672,158,464 (power: 1,828,251,263,672,172) | | | Sons of God in Gen 6:2 Since the Trad section would consider this as genocide, I will post this here to get some feedback.
While I was doing some research about the individuals in the bible that are noted to worship God. After reading the names noted in "the begats" from Adam to Noah in Gen 5, the term "sons of God" comes up in Gen 6...... Gen 5:1This [is] the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him; Gen 5:2Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created. Gen 5:3And Adam lived an hundred and thirty years, and begat [a son] in his own likeness, after his image; and called his name Seth: Gen 5:1¶This [is] the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him; (let skip down to the last name before the flood....) Gen 5:32And Noah was five hundred years old: and Noah begat Shem, Ham, and Japheth. Gen 6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, Gen 6:2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they [were] fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.
If we consider that chapter 6 dialog is in continuation of chapter 5, we can see that "the sons of God" is the given lineage from God to Adam and from Adam to Seth and all the way down to Noah. They all lived hundreds of years on the earth.
All those in the geneology, I considered as the sons of God.
What reenforces my possition is when "the begat" in Lukes geneology includes "son of God". Luk 3:37 Which was [the son] of Mathusala, which was [the son] of Enoch, which was [the son] of Jared, which was [the son] of Maleleel, which was [the son] of Cainan, Luk 3:38 Which was [the son] of Enos, which was [the son] of Seth, which was [the son] of Adam, which was [the son] of God. What do you think? Do we have scriptural support to start talking about aliens from other planets? Close study would show that the flood was detrimental to all life on the earth and nowherelse. What are your thoughts?
Last edited by Cribstyl; 23rd March 2011 at 02:33 PM.
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23rd March 2011, 03:17 PM
|  | Regular Member 65  | | Join Date: 30th January 2010 Location: Florida
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Reps: 516,297,338,982,974 (power: 516,297,338,986) | | Originally Posted by Cribstyl Since the Trad section would consider this as genocide, I will post this here to get some feedback.
While I was doing some research about the individuals in the bible that are noted to worship God. After reading the names noted in "the begats" from Adam to Noah in Gen 5, the term "sons of God" comes up in Gen 6...... Gen 5:1This [is] the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him; Gen 5:2Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created. Gen 5:3And Adam lived an hundred and thirty years, and begat [a son] in his own likeness, after his image; and called his name Seth: Gen 5:1¶This [is] the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him; (let skip down to the last name before the flood....) Gen 5:32And Noah was five hundred years old: and Noah begat Shem, Ham, and Japheth. Gen 6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, Gen 6:2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they [were] fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.
If we consider that chapter 6 dialog is in continuation of chapter 5, we can see that "the sons of God" is the given lineage from God to Adam and from Adam to Seth and all the way down to Noah. They all lived hundreds of years on the earth.
All those in the geneology, I considered as the sons of God.
What reenforces my possition is when "the begat" in Lukes geneology includes "son of God". Luk 3:37 Which was [the son] of Mathusala, which was [the son] of Enoch, which was [the son] of Jared, which was [the son] of Maleleel, which was [the son] of Cainan, Luk 3:38 Which was [the son] of Enos, which was [the son] of Seth, which was [the son] of Adam, which was [the son] of God. What do you think?
I think that you are right, Cribstyl. Originally Posted by Cribstyl Do we have scriptural support to start talking about aliens from other planets?
No, I don't think so. Originally Posted by Cribstyl Close study would show that the flood was detrimental to all life on the earth and nowherelse.
Agreed. Originally Posted by Cribstyl What are your thoughts?
Your thoughts are my thoughts on this matter. :-) Yours is the best answer I've heard so far on this particular text.
Just wondering why the Trads would consider your point to be genocide. | 
23rd March 2011, 04:06 PM
|  | Veteran 53  | | Join Date: 13th June 2006
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Reps: 1,828,251,263,672,158,464 (power: 1,828,251,263,672,172) | | Originally Posted by Laodicean [/color][/b]
I think that you are right, Cribstyl. [/b]
No, I don't think so.
[/b]
Agreed.
Your thoughts are my thoughts on this matter. :-) Yours is the best answer I've heard so far on this particular text.
Just wondering why the Trads would consider your point to be genocide.
Well, to them, I'm the spiritually blind. I mostly get to see and address their questions that appear to imply whatever they want to say. They find it highly offensive when I start a thread topic. | 
23rd March 2011, 05:03 PM
| | Newbie 71  | | Join Date: 8th September 2008
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Reps: 9,225,635,000,307,808 (power: 9,225,635,000,313) | | Originally Posted by Cribstyl Since the Trad section would consider this as genocide, I will post this here to get some feedback.
While I was doing some research about the individuals in the bible that are noted to worship God. After reading the names noted in "the begats" from Adam to Noah in Gen 5, the term "sons of God" comes up in Gen 6...... Gen 5:1This [is] the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him; Gen 5:2Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created. Gen 5:3And Adam lived an hundred and thirty years, and begat [a son] in his own likeness, after his image; and called his name Seth: Gen 5:1¶This [is] the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him; (let skip down to the last name before the flood....) Gen 5:32And Noah was five hundred years old: and Noah begat Shem, Ham, and Japheth. Gen 6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, Gen 6:2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they [were] fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.
If we consider that chapter 6 dialog is in continuation of chapter 5, we can see that "the sons of God" is the given lineage from God to Adam and from Adam to Seth and all the way down to Noah. They all lived hundreds of years on the earth.
All those in the geneology, I considered as the sons of God.
What reenforces my possition is when "the begat" in Lukes geneology includes "son of God". Luk 3:37 Which was [the son] of Mathusala, which was [the son] of Enoch, which was [the son] of Jared, which was [the son] of Maleleel, which was [the son] of Cainan, Luk 3:38 Which was [the son] of Enos, which was [the son] of Seth, which was [the son] of Adam, which was [the son] of God. What do you think? Do we have scriptural support to start talking about aliens from other planets? Close study would show that the flood was detrimental to all life on the earth and nowherelse. What are your thoughts?
Crib,
The essential saving truth in the witness concerning these sons of God who took wives is that they did what they chose. The disposition to do what we chose is our iniquity. The doing of our will, even in the good natural processes, leads us into conflict with the will of our Sovereign Lord God.
This witness saves us by showing us our secret faults and leading us to Jesus and the blood of atonement, whereby our sins go beforehand to judgment.
Joe | 
24th March 2011, 10:22 AM
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Reps: 1,828,251,263,672,158,464 (power: 1,828,251,263,672,172) | | | Concerning God's judgment to send the flood Originally Posted by Joe67 Crib,
The essential saving truth in the witness concerning these sons of God who took wives is that they did what they chose. The disposition to do what we chose is our iniquity. The doing of our will, even in the good natural processes, leads us into conflict with the will of our Sovereign Lord God.
This witness saves us by showing us our secret faults and leading us to Jesus and the blood of atonement, whereby our sins go beforehand to judgment.
Joe
Agreed Joe  ...... Another observation is that God's judgment of all humanity is without a hint of a broken law that was given to them at creation. Would God not have held men accountable to the words of His law? Did everyone keep the sabbath?
From what we read, the world was not judged by the ten commandments, they were judged by the content of their hearts.
God explained that the hearts of everyone was evil and all men were corrupt. Gen 6:5¶And GOD saw that the wickedness of man [was] great in the earth, and [that] every imagination of the thoughts of his heart [was] only evil continually. Gen 6:6 And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart. Gen 6:7 And the LORD said, I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for it repenteth me that I have made them. Gen 6:11¶The earth also was corrupt before God, and the earth was filled with violence. Gen 6:12And God looked upon the earth, and, behold, it was corrupt; for all flesh had corrupted his way upon the earth. Gen 6:13And God said unto Noah, The end of all flesh is come before me; for the earth is filled with violence through them; and, behold, I will destroy them with the earth. | 
24th March 2011, 12:10 PM
|  | Regular Member 65  | | Join Date: 30th January 2010 Location: Florida
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Reps: 516,297,338,982,974 (power: 516,297,338,986) | | Originally Posted by Cribstyl Agreed Joe  ...... Another observation is that God's judgment of all humanity is without a hint of a broken law that was given to them at creation. Would God not have held men accountable to the words of His law? Did everyone keep the sabbath?
From what we read, the world was not judged by the ten commandments, they were judged by the content of their hearts.
God explained that the hearts of everyone was evil and all men were corrupt. Gen 6:5¶And GOD saw that the wickedness of man [was] great in the earth, and [that] every imagination of the thoughts of his heart [was] only evil continually. Gen 6:6 And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart. Gen 6:7 And the LORD said, I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for it repenteth me that I have made them. Gen 6:11¶The earth also was corrupt before God, and the earth was filled with violence. Gen 6:12And God looked upon the earth, and, behold, it was corrupt; for all flesh had corrupted his way upon the earth. Gen 6:13And God said unto Noah, The end of all flesh is come before me; for the earth is filled with violence through them; and, behold, I will destroy them with the earth.
Cribstyl, what defines evil? God's law existed from the beginning, and that is how evil is recognized, by comparison to a standard of good behavior; i.e., God's law.
The principles of God's law have existed through all eternity, and they were, at a point in human history, stated in the form of ten commands that apply as long as this sinful earth continues.
Note that before the 10 commandments were given on Mt. Sinai, we read: "And the LORD said unto Moses, How long refuse ye to keep my commandments and my laws? See, for that the LORD hath given you the sabbath, therefore he giveth you on the sixth day the bread of two days; abide ye every man in his place, let no man go out of his place on the seventh day. So the people rested on the seventh day." Exodus 16: 28-30.
So I don't think the texts you quote here undermine the reality of God's law. They merely point up the fact that in order to be declared corrupt and evil, there must be a standard of good in existence. That standard of good is reflected in the 10 commandments. | 
24th March 2011, 01:08 PM
| | Newbie 71  | | Join Date: 8th September 2008
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Reps: 9,225,635,000,307,808 (power: 9,225,635,000,313) | | | Human communication as we now experience it through sight and sound are incomplete and temporary; yet are a God given necessity.
Prophesy (prophetic authority) and preaching (apostolic authority) are temporary. Knowledge and tongues will pass away.
When love enters, then the incomplete modes of communication have fulfilled their purpose and are rendered useless; yet not condemned or despised.
It is a decreasing and increasing process, as the new replaces the old.
Joe | 
24th March 2011, 02:39 PM
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Reps: 1,828,251,263,672,158,464 (power: 1,828,251,263,672,172) | | Originally Posted by Laodicean Cribstyl, what defines evil? God's law existed from the beginning, and that is how evil is recognized, by comparison to a standard of good behavior; i.e., God's law.
Thank for the response Laodicean, You've been taught many things that my 4yr old and 6yr old are also being taught in sabbath school. There is no scriptures to support it.
I think a better question is who defines evil, and the answer is; God.
Evil is the opposite of good.
In the pages of Genesis, God defines it as comming from the heart of man.
Whether there is a law or not, evil is present due to the original sin of Adam. True or false?
The bible says that God planted a tree of knowledge of good and evil. To consider that man was naked and inocent, having no knowledge of good or evil, is EVIDENCE that they did could not have a law to explain evil. Eating from the tree which God forbid them to eat from, was the SIN they transgressed.
For people to use commentary to inject the law being known by Adam is proven questionable by scriptures.
To say that Adam and Eve broke other commandments renders God's word as insufficient and only part of the creation story.
The principles of God's law have existed through all eternity, and they were, at a point in human history, stated in the form of ten commands that apply as long as this sinful earth continues.
We both cannot deny that God's Holiness and righteousness is eternal and part of the image and character of God. The wisdom taken from being created in the image of God, is Holiness and righteousness. To say that God gaves the ten commandment before Sinai is commantary that contradict the bible. Note that before the 10 commandments were given on Mt. Sinai, we read: "And the LORD said unto Moses, How long refuse ye to keep my commandments and my laws? See, for that the LORD hath given you the sabbath, therefore he giveth you on the sixth day the bread of two days; abide ye every man in his place, let no man go out of his place on the seventh day. So the people rested on the seventh day." Exodus 16: 28-30.
Anyone who reads the context knows, that God said He was proving to see if the would keep this as a law or not,
Exodus 16:4 Then said the LORD unto Moses, Behold, I will rain bread from heaven for you; and the people shall go out and gather a certain rate every day, that I may prove them, whether they will walk in my law, or no.
Whenever God gives a commandment for all the people to do something, it's a law. We can understand in the text above that God was initiating a law to pick of mannar 6 day and rest on the seventh day.
Trying to link certain text to 'sabbath' and 'the law' is a game played by those with insufficeint evidence to support the law before it was given. So I don't think the texts you quote here undermine the reality of God's law. They merely point up the fact that in order to be declared corrupt and evil, there must be a standard of good in existence. That standard of good is reflected in the 10 commandments.
You're good, but you're proving that the standards of Good and evil was not known until after Adam ate the fruit.
Last edited by Cribstyl; 24th March 2011 at 03:56 PM.
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24th March 2011, 05:32 PM
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Reps: 516,297,338,982,974 (power: 516,297,338,986) | | Originally Posted by Cribstyl I think a better question is who defines evil, and the answer is; God.
Evil is the opposite of good.
I agree. And how does the Creator define evil? By describing the standard for good. That standard is found in the ten commandments.
And if evil is the opposite of good, how do you recognize evil if you don't know what good is? Good is described in the ten commandments. Originally Posted by Cribstyl In the pages of Genesis, God defines it as comming from the heart of man.
actually, when you say the definition for evil is that it is coming from the heart of man, that is not a definition at all. You are just saying where it resides, but saying where does not define the what.
What is sin? Transgression of the law. Originally Posted by Cribstyl Whether there is a law or not, evil is present due to the original sin of Adam. True or false?
False. " for where no law is, there is no transgression." Romans 4:15.
Yet Adam and Eve were transgressors, so there must have been a law in existence. Which law did they break? "Have no other gods before Me." When they chose to trust the lies of satan, they placed their trust in someone other than God. That someone became as god to them and was now in first place instead of God. Originally Posted by Cribstyl The bible says that God planted a tree of knowledge of good and evil. To consider that man was naked and inocent, having no knowledge of good or evil, is EVIDENCE that they did could not have a law to explain evil. Eating from the tree which God forbid them to eat from, was the SIN they transgressed.
Their sin was that of distrusting God and doubting His instructions. And that has always been our sin -- distrusting God...which leads to many sinful actions. Originally Posted by Cribstyl For people to use commentary to inject the law being known by Adam is proven questionable by scriptures.
To say that Adam and Eve broke other commandments renders God's word as insufficient and only part of the creation story.
We both cannot deny that God's Holiness and righteousness is eternal and part of the image and character of God. The wisdom taken from being created in the image of God, is Holiness and righteousness. To say that God gaves the ten commandment before Sinai is commantary that contradict the bible.
Okay, let's stick with just the Exodus 16 command. It was a command to keep the seventh day Sabbath holy. So if there was no other command known, at least that one commandment was known. Right? Originally Posted by Cribstyl Anyone who reads the context knows, that God said He was proving to see if the would keep this as a law or not,
Exodus 16:4Then said the LORD unto Moses, Behold, I will rain bread from heaven for you; and the people shall go out and gather a certain rate every day, that I may prove them, whether they will walk in my law, or no.
Whenever God gives a commandment for all the people to do something, it's a law. We can understand in the text above that God was initiating a law to pick of mannar 6 day and rest on the seventh day.
The point being made was that the seventh day was for rest. Manna gathering was only incidental to the actual command to rest. Originally Posted by Cribstyl Trying to link certain text to 'sabbath' and 'the law' is a game played by those with insufficeint evidence to support the law before it was given.
I'll play along with your concept that there was no law (except the Sabbath law) before Sinai. So tell me then, which of the other nine commandments were okay to ignore before Sinai? Originally Posted by Cribstyl You're good, but you're proving that the standards of Good and evil was not known until after Adam ate the fruit.
Maybe so, and maybe that was the reason why the standards had to be clearly outlined later. However, note Cain's actions of killing Abel. Apparently, it was made known, if not already known, that to kill one's brother was a sin and that punishment was warranted. So I think that the principles of the other nine commandments were known early on.
Question: Can you point to any one of the other nine commandments, and say that there was ever a time, in the past, present, or future, when it was okay to go against such commands? | 
24th March 2011, 11:45 PM
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Reps: 1,828,251,263,672,158,464 (power: 1,828,251,263,672,172) | | | Part 1 of 3 posts of my response Originally Posted by Laodicean I agree. And how does the Creator define evil? By describing the standard for good. That standard is found in the ten commandments.
And if evil is the opposite of good, how do you recognize evil if you don't know what good is? Good is described in the ten commandments. Please post scriptural evidence to support those claims.
It seems elementary wisdom that good and evil are self difining words that are opposite to each other.
How do you reconcile the ten commandments existed in time from Genesis 1 to Gen 6? God sends a flood to destroy mankind and not one scriptures tell us about the 10 commandments or laws being broken.
I posted the scriptures of what God said the people commited causing Him to destroy mankind.
You're using eisegesis, by telling us what you think, rather than exegesis, simply explaining the text. actually, when you say the definition for evil is that it is coming from the heart of man, that is not a definition at all. You are just saying where it resides, but saying where does not define the what.
I stand corrected. Here is what the Hebrew translation and definition of evil is; ra` 1) bad, evil a) bad, disagreeable, malignant b) bad, unpleasant, evil (giving pain, unhappiness, misery) c) evil, displeasing d) bad (of its kind - land, water, etc) e) bad (of value) f) worse than, worst (comparison) g) sad, unhappy h) evil (hurtful) i) bad, unkind (vicious in disposition) j) bad, evil, wicked (ethically) 1) in general, of persons, of thoughts 2) deeds, actions
KJV usage is.... AV — evil 442, wickedness 59, wicked 25, mischief 21, hurt 20, bad 13, trouble 10, sore 9, affliction 6, ill 5, adversity 4, favoured 3, harm 3, naught 3, noisome 2, grievous 2, sad 2, misc 34
Evil in not related to law. Evil is a standard that's opposed to the standard of Good (good and bad).
After Adam ate from the tree, God did not say, Behold, man is to knows my law.
The text says that man is to know good and evil. Gen 3:22And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:
So, before the flood God's judgment shows that evil has overtaken man's heart. This dialog is God's language and not mines. Gen 6:5And GOD saw that the wickedness of man [was] great in the earth, and [that] every imagination of the thoughts of his heart [was] only evil continually.
Last edited by Cribstyl; 25th March 2011 at 12:20 PM.
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