"But my God shall supply all your need according to his riches in glory by Christ Jesus"
I have heard it many times and until now I thought I understood it. I hear people quote this mostly when they are in a financial bind, but they say it like this "God said that He would supply all my needs according to His riches in Glory by Christ Jesus". God didn't say this, Paul did. I guess my question is, (A) why do people say this incorrectly, & (B) Where in the bible does God Himself say that He would provide for our needs?
I'm not saying that everyone is wrong, I'm just saying that I don't understand it and would like some insight on it. Thanks in advance!
Paul as an Apostle is teaching us that God provides our needs is enough to believe God will provide our needs. For God promised to speak through His apostles.
It does not refer to a financial bind, unless God feels a person needs that for His purposes. What do we "need" other than Him? "The Lord is my shepherd, I shall not be in want." Ps 23:1
Prov. 19:17; Eccl. 11:1; Eph. 6:8. also show that God repays generosity. The Phillipian congregation had sent material support to Paul, and he was saying that God would not let them go destitute for giving that gift. Of course, our "need" would be defined by 1 tim. 6:8 "But if we have food and clothing, we will be content with that. "
__________________ When a man who is honestly mistaken hears the truth he either ceases to be mistaken or begins to be dishonest.
Phillipians 4:19 
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