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  #41  
Old 8th October 2009, 10:03 AM
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Originally Posted by AV1611VET View Post
I do.

How can you interpret something you don't have?
See, if your "literalist" basis weren't so shoddily cobbled together out of personal extraBiblical speculation, I might even give that statement a second glance.

However, you've clearly already decided there aren't supporting verses (in your opinion only) so why bother to issue the challenge and why should we bother to answer it?
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  #42  
Old 8th October 2009, 11:08 AM
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Originally Posted by AV1611VET View Post
Excuse me --- the Bible says it, that settles it.

Why do you think the Bible portrays those living in Samaria as going "up" to the city, if Samaria wasn't south of Jerusalem?

Everything is "gradual" to you guys --- instantaneous to us, though ---
So now you're defending your own lie... again.

Is this about glorifying God, the Bible, or yourself?
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  #43  
Old 8th October 2009, 12:07 PM
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Originally Posted by The Lady Kate View Post
So now you're defending your own lie... again.

Is this about glorifying God, the Bible, or yourself?
These terms have become rather interchangeable to him.
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  #44  
Old 8th October 2009, 12:34 PM
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Originally Posted by LifeToTheFullest! View Post
Genesis 2:7 KJV

And the Lord God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.

Clearly this speaks to man evolving from earlier primates to the point in which God imparted a soul.

What do I win???
Which makes as least as many verses as support dispensationalism!
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  #45  
Old 8th October 2009, 02:09 PM
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Originally Posted by AV1611VET View Post
Why do you think the Bible portrays those living in Samaria as going "up" to the city, if Samaria wasn't south of Jerusalem?
Wait, wait, wait... I´m trying hard to wring my understanding of English to the maximum.

So let´s see what this sentence says.

1. The Bible portrays those living in Samaria as going "up" to the city.
2. "The city" here is Jerusalem.
3. The reason the Bible says "up" is because Samaria is south of Jerusalem.
4. If Samaria wasn´t south of Jerusalem, the Bible would not make this statement.

Em... but Samaria isn´t south of Jerusalem - it´s north of Jerusalem.

Did my command of English just leave me?

Perhaps AV wants to tell us that Samaria WAS south of Jerusalem, until the "world was turned upside down". But if this reversal was indeed a reversal in the magnetic field, this would have gone unnoticed by, well, everybody, as the magnetic compass hadn´t been invented yet. The directions... north, south, east and west... are not derived from magnetism, but from the movement of the sun. It is not for nothing that we have terms like "orient" and "occident" for east and west... they literally mean "ascend" and "descend".
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Last edited by Freodin; 8th October 2009 at 02:17 PM.
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  #46  
Old 8th October 2009, 02:40 PM
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Originally Posted by Freodin View Post
Wait, wait, wait... I´m trying hard to wring my understanding of English to the maximum.

So let´s see what this sentence says.

1. The Bible portrays those living in Samaria as going "up" to the city.
2. "The city" here is Jerusalem.
3. The reason the Bible says "up" is because Samaria is south of Jerusalem.
4. If Samaria wasn´t south of Jerusalem, the Bible would not make this statement.

Em... but Samaria isn´t south of Jerusalem - it´s north of Jerusalem.

Did my command of English just leave me?

Perhaps AV wants to tell us that Samaria WAS south of Jerusalem, until the "world was turned upside down". But if this reversal was indeed a reversal in the magnetic field, this would have gone unnoticed by, well, everybody, as the magnetic compass hadn´t been invented yet. The directions... north, south, east and west... are not derived from magnetism, but from the movement of the sun. It is not for nothing that we have terms like "orient" and "occident" for east and west... they literally mean "ascend" and "descend".
Except that this is AV1611VET's own imagination, not a legitimate interpretation of Scripture... he's already admitted that even he doesn't believe this nonsense.
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  #47  
Old 8th October 2009, 02:51 PM
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For a literalist, he's using a distinctly non-literal interpretation of "up".
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  #48  
Old 8th October 2009, 02:58 PM
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Originally Posted by sbvera13 View Post
For a literalist, he's using a distinctly non-literal interpretation of "up".
Indeed. Shouldn't Jerusalem be floating above Samaria? Or, perhaps Samaria was in a valley.
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  #49  
Old 8th October 2009, 03:30 PM
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Originally Posted by Freodin View Post
But if this reversal was indeed a reversal in the magnetic field, this would have gone unnoticed by, well, everybody, as the magnetic compass hadn´t been invented yet.
No magnetic compass needed.
Originally Posted by Genesis 28:14
And thy seed shall be as the dust of the earth, and thou shalt spread abroad to the west, and to the east, and to the north, and to the south: and in thee and in thy seed shall all the families of the earth be blessed.
I can tell which direction N is w/o one.
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  #50  
Old 8th October 2009, 03:35 PM
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Originally Posted by AV1611VET View Post
No magnetic compass needed.I can tell which direction N is w/o one.
Err, yes, you (usually) can do that without a magnetic compass. And now please tell me how you do that.#

My point was that you would need a magnetic compass (or any other device that would align to the magnetic field - which would be an equivalent of a compass) to notice a reversal in the magnetic field. Humans cannot recognize this field unaided.

And as this compass had not been invented in 58AD (ok, there are earlier mentions in China... but again the Chinese seem to have been missing this event), the directions had not been defined by magnetism, but by the movement of the sun (and other celestial objects).

So in order for Nero to notice that the world was turned "upside down"... the path of the sun would have to be reversed. That is, not the magnetic field would have turned, but the physical planet.

Do you believe that?
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Last edited by Freodin; 8th October 2009 at 03:45 PM.
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