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  #1  
Old 30th July 2009, 06:54 AM
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ashes to ashes, dust to dust

I was at another funeral yesterday, the 2nd in a week and the Anglican minister said the phrase, "ashes to ashes, dust to dust" as he poured ashes into the grave.

Is this biblical?
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  #2  
Old 30th July 2009, 10:26 AM
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I don't think so. That pharase simply means that we will return to what we came from.
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  #3  
Old 30th July 2009, 10:50 AM
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Originally Posted by Tyndale View Post
I was at another funeral yesterday, the 2nd in a week and the Anglican minister said the phrase, "ashes to ashes, dust to dust" as he poured ashes into the grave.

Is this biblical?
You canít find Ďashes to ashes, dust to dustí in the Bible because it isnít there! The phrase comes from the funeral service in the Book of Common Prayer, and it is based on Genesis 3:19.

Each church of the Anglican Communion has its own version of the Book of Common Prayer. In the current American version, it appears on page 485 (Burial Rite 1) and on page 501 (Burial Rite 2) in a prayer that is said by the priest as earth is ceremonially cast on the coffin:
In sure and certain hope of the resurrection to eternal life through our Lord Jesus Christ, we commend to Almighty God our brother/sister <name>; and we commit his body to the ground; earth to earth; ashes to ashes, dust to dust. The Lord bless him and keep him, the Lord make his face to shine upon him and be gracious unto him and give him peace. Amen.
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Old 30th July 2009, 10:51 AM
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Originally Posted by Tyndale View Post
I was at another funeral yesterday, the 2nd in a week and the Anglican minister said the phrase, "ashes to ashes, dust to dust" as he poured ashes into the grave.

Is this biblical?
The symbolism is entirely Biblical.

The Nicene understanding of the Trinity isn't directly stated in the Bible either...is that Biblical?

I really pity Lutherans and Moravians...Evangelical Protestants have turned sola scriptura into a mess. It no longer is the same as it was in the beginning...I personally blame Calvin and the Radical Reformationists.
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For You are the Lord Most High, of great compassion, long-suffering, and very merciful, and You relent at human suffering. O Lord, according to Your great goodness You have promised repentance and forgiveness to those who have sinned against You, and in the multitude of Your mercies You have appointed repentance for sinners so that they may be saved.

-Prayer of Manasseh verse 7 (NRSV)
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Old 30th July 2009, 11:11 AM
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The Nicene understanding of the Trinity isn't directly stated in the Bible either...is that Biblical?
If it's in the bible it's in the bible. Just because the Nicene understanding wasn't directly stated doesn't make it any less true.
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  #6  
Old 30th July 2009, 11:19 AM
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Originally Posted by Stryder06 View Post
If it's in the bible it's in the bible. Just because the Nicene understanding wasn't directly stated doesn't make it any less true.
Which brings us back to the point:

It doesn't have to be directly stated for it to be Biblical, does it?
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For You are the Lord Most High, of great compassion, long-suffering, and very merciful, and You relent at human suffering. O Lord, according to Your great goodness You have promised repentance and forgiveness to those who have sinned against You, and in the multitude of Your mercies You have appointed repentance for sinners so that they may be saved.

-Prayer of Manasseh verse 7 (NRSV)
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Old 30th July 2009, 11:22 AM
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Originally Posted by PaladinValer View Post
Which brings us back to the point:

It doesn't have to be directly stated for it to be Biblical, does it?
Agreed. It doesn't have to say "And thus the Trinity..." and so forth. But to be bilblical it has to be in the bible. We see the Father Son and Spirit all in the bible. The term trinity makes it simple to speak about them.
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Old 30th July 2009, 11:29 AM
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Originally Posted by Stryder06 View Post
Agreed. It doesn't have to say "And thus the Trinity..." and so forth. But to be bilblical it has to be in the bible. We see the Father Son and Spirit all in the bible. The term trinity makes it simple to speak about them.
I could just as easily see Arianism (and Arius quoted Scripture extensively to prove his points).

The point is, is this: just because it isn't in Scripture doesn't mean it is contrary to the Bible.

The imposition of ashes, either on the forehead or upon the grave, doesn't necessarily have to be in Scripture. The Bible however does discuss ashes and the use of ashes in Apostolic churches is out of those readings; the symbolism recalls those passages; Scripture is written all over it.

That's why I cannot stand what Evangelical Protestants have done with the Lutheran/Moravian understanding of sola scriptura. Even though in the end I disagree with both, the Lutheran/Moravian one is far more appealing and, depending on its approach, can even be within Apostolic limits of orthodoxy.
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-Prayer of Manasseh verse 7 (NRSV)
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Old 30th July 2009, 11:49 AM
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If ashes in the bible refers to death, destruction and sin, does the ash placed on the foreheads symbolise death, destruction and sin?
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Old 30th July 2009, 11:52 AM
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Originally Posted by PaladinValer View Post
I could just as easily see Arianism (and Arius quoted Scripture extensively to prove his points).

The point is, is this: just because it isn't in Scripture doesn't mean it is contrary to the Bible.
Agreed.

The imposition of ashes, either on the forehead or upon the grave, doesn't necessarily have to be in Scripture. The Bible however does discuss ashes and the use of ashes in Apostolic churches is out of those readings; the symbolism recalls those passages; Scripture is written all over it.
Never said I had a problem with the ashes, was just saying it isn't in the bible as in physically not in there. Couldn't say there's anything wrong with it cause I'm not familiar with the practice.

That's why I cannot stand what Evangelical Protestants have done with the Lutheran/Moravian understanding of sola scriptura. Even though in the end I disagree with both, the Lutheran/Moravian one is far more appealing and, depending on its approach, can even be within Apostolic limits of orthodoxy.
Well I'm not to familiar with this so I can't speak on it.

Suffice it so say, I agree that something not being in the bible doesn't make it wrong, as long as it doesn't go contratry to what is written in the Word of God.
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