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Old 23rd June 2009, 11:37 PM
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Alcoholism vs sexual orientation

I dont usually like comparisons of a homosexual orientation to alcoholism, but Jack Black recently asked a question about homosexuality that is easier to explain if such a comparison is made. However, before getting into the question and my response, I need to define where the comparison between alcoholism and homosexuality may have some validity, and where the comparison fails.

In both cases there are believed to be genetic factors that contribute to a predisposition toward the condition. There are also in utero biochemical factors, and behavioral factors in one's upbringing. No one of these factors alone is likely to cause the condition, but their presence is cummulative.

Very few people, if any, have every such factor in their background, but the more of these factors in a person's history, the greater the likelihood he will have the condition. There may also be a particular event in a person's life which triggers the condition. That's the similarities. Now the differences.

In the case of alcoholism, there is always a trigger event. In fact, the trigger event is always accompanied by a bout of drunkenness since that is what steers the the condition into alcoholism rather than some other addictive behaviour.

In the case of homosexual orientation, the combination of factors sometimes seems to be enough, and there is often no trigger. Many gays know from their earliest memories, long before they became sexualized, that they are different from other children. Likewise, although there are no alcoholics who have never gotten drunk, there are many, many gays who have never had sex.

Finally, many of the same churches that condemn homosexuality also discourage all drinking of alcohol. I am not certain why they choose to do so, but if it is because of Romans 14:13-15 and Romans 14:21("Let us not therefore judge one another any more: but judge this rather, that no man put a stumblingblock or an occasion to fall in [his] brother's way. I know, and am persuaded by the Lord Jesus, that [there is] nothing unclean of itself: but to him that esteemeth any thing to be unclean, to him [it is] unclean. But if thy brother be grieved with [thy] meat, now walkest thou not charitably. Destroy not him with thy meat, for whom Christ died." and "It is good neither to eat flesh, nor to drink wine, nor any thing whereby thy brother stumbleth, or is offended, or is made weak."), then it is done with the best of intentions.

There's a saying about good intentions.

Now I am ready to look at Jack's question. I will first answer that question as though he asked it about alcoholics rather than gays. Then I will show that there is (despite his assumption to the contrary) a similar answer when it is gays asked about.

Jack asked: "Are you condoning Homosexual relationships? If you are, (and this goes for everyone here) please provide Scripture that reveals unequivocally that God ALSO condones it, from either the OT or NT"

Translating this to alcohol, the question becomes: "Are you condoning drinking alcohol? If you are, (and this goes for everyone here) please provide Scripture that reveals unequivocally that God ALSO condones it, from either the OT or NT"

A complete and Biblical answer requires making certain distinctions that some dogmatic Christians choose not to aknowledge. An alcoholic is not always the same as a drunkard, and drinking wine is not always the same as committing an act of drunkenness.

1 Corinthians 6:9-10 says that drunkards will not inherit the kingdom. Other verses, from Genesis 9 to Revalation 17 and 18 condemn drunkenness. None of them condemn the wine itself, or the drinking of it in moderation under appropriate circumstances.

I want to look at two passages in particular. First, in 1 Timothy 5:3, Paul specifically tells Timothy to drink some wine for his health. This is just after saying that church leaders should not be "given to wine." (1 Timothy 3:3 and 1 Timothy 3:8). In verse 8 he makes it clear that he is talking about being given to too much wine, that is, drunkenness.

The other passage is John 2:1-11 (the marriage feast at Cana). In this passage Jesus actually creates the wine for the celebration. He creates the wine because the host has run out. The passage does not tell us why the host ran out, but it would have been very embarassing if the news had spread. It might even have jeopardized the marriage. It might have been that the host was inexperienced and underestimated the average amount of wine a guest would be expected to drink. It may be that he ran out of money -- that he was hosting a party beyond his means. It could have been that there were too many party crashers. We just don't know. It could even have been that the bride's uncles Tom, Dick and Harry grabbed up three wineskins each and proceeded to get rip-roaring drunk. Whatever the reason, the Gospel does not think it worth mentioning. But we can't take the fact that the Gospel does not quote Jesus as telling the guests to enjoy the wine, but not to overdo it as an indication that no one became drunk.

Similarly, when we come back to homosexuality. In Leviticus chapters 18 and 20, the Bible condemns an action it refers to as "man-lying" (shakav zakur), and in 1 Corinthians 6 and 1 Timothy 1, Paul refers to those who commit this sin as "man-bedders" (arsenokoitai). These four verses are the only four passages in the entire Bible that condemn this activity, at least under this name.

Romans 1:26-27 describes a sin that seems to bear some resemblence to what many people assume was condemned as "man-lying." The full description, from "For this cause God gave them up" to "receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet," is the language of consequence, not cause; of punishment, not crime. Paul borrowed the word picture from a chapter in Plato about what we would today recognize as addiction. If he is talking about "man-lying," (or even if he is not exactly talking about "man-lying") Paul is comparing this sin to drunkenness. A sinful excess that has brought much destruction down on the sinner even without outside interference.

Many conservative Christians associate "man-lying" with all "homosexual acts" and condemn all gays as "man-bedders." Just as we had to separate moderate drinking from drunkenness, and alcoholics from drunkards, we need to separate acts of affection from "man-lying" and gays from "man-bedders."

Just as we found that the Bible not only permitted but encouraged moderate drinking of wine in acceptable circumstances, once the separation from drunkenness was achieved. We will find that acts of affection, such as holding hands, hugging and kissing are acceptable once we separate them from "man-lying."

And there is no doubt whatsover that many conservative Christans see these acts of affection as "homosexual acts" and even more conservative Christians while accepting that they are not themselves "homosexual acts" can be taken as proff that "homosexual acts" are taking place in private.

And yet the Bible describes David as kissing and hugging Jonathan. Jesus kissed his disciples, including Judas, and even "spooned" with the beloved desciple during the Last Supper according to John. Paul tells the Romans, the Corinthians (in both letters) and the Thessalonians to greet one another with a "holy kiss."

I'm sure that there are a lot of conservative Christians who will object at this point that there is a huge gap from a friendly hug or a kiss of fellowship and a**l s*x (assuming man-lying is simply the same as a**l s*x, which is not entirely clear). Likewise, there is a big gap between a glass of wine at a wedding or a thimbleful of wine added to your morning OJ and public drunkenness. In neither case does the Bible describe exactly when enough is enough, and any more is sin. It is left for each individual's conscience, guided by the teachings of the Father, the grace of the Son, and the indwelling of the Spirit to determine that for himself.
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  #2  
Old 24th June 2009, 12:02 AM
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While your post is quite thoughtful and laid out well Ollie, I think we can both agree than no literalist or extremist cares about the true meaning and complexity behind these issues. I've presented numerous times explanations indicating why the Leviticus verse in question refers to a male being submissive like a woman in a male dominated culture, as well as practicing pagan sex rituals. Jesus never said a word on the issue, and based on today's understanding, the behavior exhibited by Jesus, the Apostles, and David and Johnathan would most certainly have homosexual overtones by our standards.

None of this ultimately matters. A literalist will reject any interpretation that isn't their own, as though they can't possibly be wrong and speak on God's behalf. And yet for every 10 people that claim to have the right answer, 9 of them will be wrong. The truth is, prejudice is truly what makes this an issue. Homosexuality has become so dominant in conservative Christian theology that one would think it's the unpardonable sin. The only thing those of us who are oppressed can look forward to is that history repeats itself, and just like the Christian support of slavery and banning of interracial marriage was shot down, so too will the oppression of the GLBT community. The American fundamentalist movement is a modern invention and not likely to survive, as indicated by the already diminishing Christian majority in this country. I just find it disappointing that a community so divisive that it had to split into 35,000 denominations due to disagreements has so much pride as to claim they absolutely know the truth and anyone who disagrees is wrong and bound for hell. When does the hypocrisy end? I don't think God supports such divisiveness, and sadly from a personal perspective, all of these reasons and then some are why, while I'm a follower of Christ, I much prefer being called a Messianic Jew than a Christian.

*Disclaimer - none of the above is directed at anyone in particular - it is not a flame on Christianity, merely my observation of so many Christians being divided, and all claiming they know the truth.
  #3  
Old 25th June 2009, 12:42 AM
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Originally Posted by OllieFranz View Post
I dont usually like comparisons of a homosexual orientation to alcoholism, but Jack Black recently asked a question about homosexuality that is easier to explain if such a comparison is made. However, before getting into the question and my response, I need to define where the comparison between alcoholism and homosexuality may have some validity, and where the comparison fails.

In both cases there are believed to be genetic factors that contribute to a predisposition toward the condition. There are also in utero biochemical factors, and behavioral factors in one's upbringing. No one of these factors alone is likely to cause the condition, but their presence is cummulative.

Very few people, if any, have every such factor in their background, but the more of these factors in a person's history, the greater the likelihood he will have the condition. There may also be a particular event in a person's life which triggers the condition. That's the similarities. Now the differences.

In the case of alcoholism, there is always a trigger event. In fact, the trigger event is always accompanied by a bout of drunkenness since that is what steers the the condition into alcoholism rather than some other addictive behaviour.

In the case of homosexual orientation, the combination of factors sometimes seems to be enough, and there is often no trigger. Many gays know from their earliest memories, long before they became sexualized, that they are different from other children. Likewise, although there are no alcoholics who have never gotten drunk, there are many, many gays who have never had sex.

Finally, many of the same churches that condemn homosexuality also discourage all drinking of alcohol. I am not certain why they choose to do so, but if it is because of Romans 14:13-15 and Romans 14:21("Let us not therefore judge one another any more: but judge this rather, that no man put a stumblingblock or an occasion to fall in [his] brother's way. I know, and am persuaded by the Lord Jesus, that [there is] nothing unclean of itself: but to him that esteemeth any thing to be unclean, to him [it is] unclean. But if thy brother be grieved with [thy] meat, now walkest thou not charitably. Destroy not him with thy meat, for whom Christ died." and "It is good neither to eat flesh, nor to drink wine, nor any thing whereby thy brother stumbleth, or is offended, or is made weak."), then it is done with the best of intentions.

There's a saying about good intentions.

Now I am ready to look at Jack's question. I will first answer that question as though he asked it about alcoholics rather than gays. Then I will show that there is (despite his assumption to the contrary) a similar answer when it is gays asked about.

Jack asked: "Are you condoning Homosexual relationships? If you are, (and this goes for everyone here) please provide Scripture that reveals unequivocally that God ALSO condones it, from either the OT or NT"

Translating this to alcohol, the question becomes: "Are you condoning drinking alcohol? If you are, (and this goes for everyone here) please provide Scripture that reveals unequivocally that God ALSO condones it, from either the OT or NT"

A complete and Biblical answer requires making certain distinctions that some dogmatic Christians choose not to aknowledge. An alcoholic is not always the same as a drunkard, and drinking wine is not always the same as committing an act of drunkenness.

1 Corinthians 6:9-10 says that drunkards will not inherit the kingdom. Other verses, from Genesis 9 to Revalation 17 and 18 condemn drunkenness. None of them condemn the wine itself, or the drinking of it in moderation under appropriate circumstances.

I want to look at two passages in particular. First, in 1 Timothy 5:3, Paul specifically tells Timothy to drink some wine for his health. This is just after saying that church leaders should not be "given to wine." (1 Timothy 3:3 and 1 Timothy 3:8). In verse 8 he makes it clear that he is talking about being given to too much wine, that is, drunkenness.

The other passage is John 2:1-11 (the marriage feast at Cana). In this passage Jesus actually creates the wine for the celebration. He creates the wine because the host has run out. The passage does not tell us why the host ran out, but it would have been very embarassing if the news had spread. It might even have jeopardized the marriage. It might have been that the host was inexperienced and underestimated the average amount of wine a guest would be expected to drink. It may be that he ran out of money -- that he was hosting a party beyond his means. It could have been that there were too many party crashers. We just don't know. It could even have been that the bride's uncles Tom, Dick and Harry grabbed up three wineskins each and proceeded to get rip-roaring drunk. Whatever the reason, the Gospel does not think it worth mentioning. But we can't take the fact that the Gospel does not quote Jesus as telling the guests to enjoy the wine, but not to overdo it as an indication that no one became drunk.

Similarly, when we come back to homosexuality. In Leviticus chapters 18 and 20, the Bible condemns an action it refers to as "man-lying" (shakav zakur), and in 1 Corinthians 6 and 1 Timothy 1, Paul refers to those who commit this sin as "man-bedders" (arsenokoitai). These four verses are the only four passages in the entire Bible that condemn this activity, at least under this name.

Romans 1:26-27 describes a sin that seems to bear some resemblence to what many people assume was condemned as "man-lying." The full description, from "For this cause God gave them up" to "receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet," is the language of consequence, not cause; of punishment, not crime. Paul borrowed the word picture from a chapter in Plato about what we would today recognize as addiction. If he is talking about "man-lying," (or even if he is not exactly talking about "man-lying") Paul is comparing this sin to drunkenness. A sinful excess that has brought much destruction down on the sinner even without outside interference.

Many conservative Christians associate "man-lying" with all "homosexual acts" and condemn all gays as "man-bedders." Just as we had to separate moderate drinking from drunkenness, and alcoholics from drunkards, we need to separate acts of affection from "man-lying" and gays from "man-bedders."

Just as we found that the Bible not only permitted but encouraged moderate drinking of wine in acceptable circumstances, once the separation from drunkenness was achieved. We will find that acts of affection, such as holding hands, hugging and kissing are acceptable once we separate them from "man-lying."

And there is no doubt whatsover that many conservative Christans see these acts of affection as "homosexual acts" and even more conservative Christians while accepting that they are not themselves "homosexual acts" can be taken as proff that "homosexual acts" are taking place in private.

And yet the Bible describes David as kissing and hugging Jonathan. Jesus kissed his disciples, including Judas, and even "spooned" with the beloved desciple during the Last Supper according to John. Paul tells the Romans, the Corinthians (in both letters) and the Thessalonians to greet one another with a "holy kiss."

I'm sure that there are a lot of conservative Christians who will object at this point that there is a huge gap from a friendly hug or a kiss of fellowship and a**l s*x (assuming man-lying is simply the same as a**l s*x, which is not entirely clear). Likewise, there is a big gap between a glass of wine at a wedding or a thimbleful of wine added to your morning OJ and public drunkenness. In neither case does the Bible describe exactly when enough is enough, and any more is sin. It is left for each individual's conscience, guided by the teachings of the Father, the grace of the Son, and the indwelling of the Spirit to determine that for himself.
No one wants to comment on this? Does that mean you concede that the challenge has been met? If so I expect that there will be no more claims that the Bible condemns gays, and never "condones" their acts.

Thank you.
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  #4  
Old 25th June 2009, 12:53 AM
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Originally Posted by OllieFranz View Post
No one wants to comment on this? Does that mean you concede that the challenge has been met? If so I expect that there will be no more claims that the Bible condemns gays, and never "condones" their acts.

Thank you.
No friend. It means I don't want to waste my time.
  #5  
Old 25th June 2009, 10:14 AM
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Wow. That was long. After all of that, choosing to engage in homosexual sex is STILL a sin.
  #6  
Old 25th June 2009, 10:29 AM
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Originally Posted by TimRout View Post
No friend. It means I don't want to waste my time.
Right. I'ts so much easier to condemn one's brother than to learn that God wants one to love him.
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  #7  
Old 25th June 2009, 10:30 AM
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Originally Posted by Zaac View Post
Wow. That was long. After all of that, choosing to engage in homosexual sex is STILL a sin.
So is Pharasaism, my friend. Guess which one Jesus Christ sopoke out against in His earthly ministry.
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  #8  
Old 25th June 2009, 10:39 AM
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Originally Posted by Polycarp1 View Post
So is Pharasaism, my friend. Guess which one Jesus Christ sopoke out against in His earthly ministry.
It's all His word , so He spoke against both. But at least you acknowledge that the acts are sinful. Fornication is fornication so there really is no need to try to justify it by comparing it to anything else.
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Old 25th June 2009, 12:23 PM
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Originally Posted by Zaac View Post
It's all His word , so He spoke against both. But at least you acknowledge that the acts are sinful. Fornication is fornication so there really is no need to try to justify it by comparing it to anything else.
Fornication is fornication? WTH? The "fornication" and "sexual immorality" issues have been covered ad nauseam on CF. Some refuse to accept the facts as it conflicts with their pre-eastblished beliefs. Change is hard and some are violently opposed to change...as exampled thoughout the history of Christendom.

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Old 25th June 2009, 12:51 PM
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Looking at behaviors in the bible that we tend to brand as homosexual today is not the bible saying it is ok to be a little gay. I lived in kenya for 3 years and there men would hold hands all the time because it was an act of friendship. It was a little outside my north american world view but I also held hands with other men because they were my friends and in that culture doing that act meant a lot in terms of friendship and I wasn't going to refuse it simply because I thought it was a little gay.

Cultures have many ways of looking at things and just because too men in the bible are close in a way that would make us north americans uncomfortable does not mean it is condoning homosexuality it is saying two men can be intimate through friendship. I'm sure even me saying "two men can be intimate through friendship" gets people all bothered and thinking that I am condoning homosexuality and they would rather me say something like "two men can have a 'strong' friendship" or whatever other word they want to use to replace the uncomfortable word "intimacy".

The fact remains is there are some words and some actions that are too taboo in north america when in a different place and time they were just the norm. And because of that little boys today can't hug, kiss, hold hands with other little boys and if they even think that way it means they are gay when they are just expressing friendship not sexual feelings. Children hug, kiss, and hold hands with their parents because they have a true love and trust with them and it has nothing to do with sexuality. So its only natural to have a similar urge with someone else who you consider a friend. Children don't have the same minds we do and don't complicate it with all of our rules. I was interested in girls when I went through puberty not when I was 5 and I don't believe anyone who says "I knew I was gay when I was 5" 5 year olds don't know the difference and are not interested in sexual motives when they seek a relationship. We push people into being gay because we brand their actions that way and so brand them. If you call someone stupid everyday they are going to believe it. And if you call someone gay everyday... well... they will be gay.

Last edited by DamianWarS; 25th June 2009 at 01:32 PM.
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