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  #11  
Old 7th June 2009, 03:18 PM
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If you turn the question around and ask what doesn't constitute sexual immorality, this: sex between one certain man and one certain women, they have no objective or subjective sex with anybody else and sex doesn't become an obsession to them i.e. a god.

Everything else then is sexual immorality. But maybe that's too simple an answer.

Last edited by BjorkIsCool; 7th June 2009 at 07:15 PM.
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  #12  
Old 7th June 2009, 04:25 PM
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Originally Posted by Stinker View Post
Originally Posted by Stinker
It is my understanding that we should not be using this word in our Bible discussions because it is a secular term, not a Biblical term. The word so many Christian teachers mistakenly mis-translate as sexual immorality is pornia which has a much more restrictive meaning.
There is a reason why the New Testament was written in the laguage that it was, which was the Koine Greek language. It became a dead language. Therefore, we can trace back nearly all the words to find out what they meant in that time.

I think also that common sense should be employed as well. This is why we cannot allow the word phrase sexual immorality to be translated from the word pornia. If we allow this to be done.....we allow such a broad definition to include such things as watching an R-rated movie to be included in it. We allow the wife's or husband's subjective definition of masturbating too much to be included. So, either of them could claim that they have Biblical grounds to divorce their spouse......fornication (pornia)- sexual immorality!
I find something wrong with the fact that you discredit it's use but never say what Pornia means in your opinion. Most of us get the meaning of sexual immoralty from scripture and where it says sexual relations belong, inside the covenant of marriage.
  #13  
Old 7th June 2009, 04:27 PM
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Originally Posted by BjorkIsCool View Post
If you turn the question around and ask what doesn't constitute sexual immorality, this: sex between one certain man and one certain women, they have no objective or subjective sex with anybody else and sex doesn't become an obsession to them i.e. a god.

Everything else then is sexual immorality. But maybe that's too simply an answer.


Great responce!
  #14  
Old 7th June 2009, 06:02 PM
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Originally Posted by BjorkIsCool View Post
But maybe that's too simply an answer.
Or maybe it's wrong...
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  #15  
Old 7th June 2009, 07:14 PM
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Originally Posted by Stinker
It is my understanding that we should not be using this word in our Bible discussions because it is a secular term, not a Biblical term. The word so many Christian teachers mistakenly mis-translate as sexual immorality is pornia which has a much more restrictive meaning.
There is a reason why the New Testament was written in the laguage that it was, which was the Koine Greek language. It became a dead language. Therefore, we can trace back nearly all the words to find out what they meant in that time.

I think also that common sense should be employed as well. This is why we cannot allow the word phrase sexual immorality to be translated from the word pornia. If we allow this to be done.....we allow such a broad definition to include such things as watching an R-rated movie to be included in it. We allow the wife's or husband's subjective definition of masturbating too much to be included. So, either of them could claim that they have Biblical grounds to divorce their spouse......fornication (pornia)- sexual immorality!


Originally Posted by timlamb View Post
I find something wrong with the fact that you discredit it's use but never say what Pornia means in your opinion. Most of us get the meaning of sexual immoralty from scripture and where it says sexual relations belong, inside the covenant of marriage.
The word pornia is from the Latin word fornix, which meant 'under the arch' or 'vault' . It is where pagan priestesses solicited money for their sacred 'services'.

In the New Testament time, males were married at about 16 years of age. If he had sexual intercourse with another married woman, he was said to have committed adultery against his wife. He was considered to have been an adulterer.

If he, or even an unmarried man, went to the pagan temple to have sexual intercourse with one of the priests or priestesses, he was considered to have been a fornicator. If a married, or an unmarried woman, went to the pagan temple to have sexual intercourse with one of the priests, she was considered to have been a fornicator.




1 Corinthians 6:13-16 (King James Version)

13Meats for the belly, and the belly for meats: but God shall destroy both it and them. Now the body is not for fornication, but for the Lord; and the Lord for the body.
14And God hath both raised up the Lord, and will also raise up us by his own power.
15Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid.
16What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.
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  #16  
Old 7th June 2009, 07:19 PM
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Originally Posted by *Starlight* View Post
Or maybe it's wrong...
Meant to say simple, not simply. What else do you think isn't sexual immorality?
  #17  
Old 8th June 2009, 01:55 AM
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In regards to sexual immorality, its a tricky deal, and imho very culturally dependent. In the Greek, a literal read across any number of words that fall under "sexual immorality" ends up with much much narrower range of definitions than we have today. I dont know that cultural, as well as expansion over time of scripture is cool, but alas it is what contemporary translations have evolved into.

As far as the multiple partners thing and adultery... again, we run into cultural issues. An exceedingly literal view of scriptures, in the time the scriptures were written, whether right or wrong, would seem to lead one towards the view that adultery is a problem for anyone other than the first (with certain exceptions for divorce, death of spouse etc).
  #18  
Old 8th June 2009, 03:27 AM
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Originally Posted by Stinker View Post
Originally Posted by Stinker
It is my understanding that we should not be using this word in our Bible discussions because it is a secular term, not a Biblical term. The word so many Christian teachers mistakenly mis-translate as sexual immorality is pornia which has a much more restrictive meaning.
There is a reason why the New Testament was written in the laguage that it was, which was the Koine Greek language. It became a dead language. Therefore, we can trace back nearly all the words to find out what they meant in that time.

I think also that common sense should be employed as well. This is why we cannot allow the word phrase sexual immorality to be translated from the word pornia. If we allow this to be done.....we allow such a broad definition to include such things as watching an R-rated movie to be included in it. We allow the wife's or husband's subjective definition of masturbating too much to be included. So, either of them could claim that they have Biblical grounds to divorce their spouse......fornication (pornia)- sexual immorality!




The word pornia is from the Latin word fornix, which meant 'under the arch' or 'vault' . It is where pagan priestesses solicited money for their sacred 'services'.

In the New Testament time, males were married at about 16 years of age. If he had sexual intercourse with another married woman, he was said to have committed adultery against his wife. He was considered to have been an adulterer.

If he, or even an unmarried man, went to the pagan temple to have sexual intercourse with one of the priests or priestesses, he was considered to have been a fornicator. If a married, or an unmarried woman, went to the pagan temple to have sexual intercourse with one of the priests, she was considered to have been a fornicator.




1 Corinthians 6:13-16 (King James Version)

13Meats for the belly, and the belly for meats: but God shall destroy both it and them. Now the body is not for fornication, but for the Lord; and the Lord for the body.
14And God hath both raised up the Lord, and will also raise up us by his own power.
15Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid.
16What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.
Hey, I approve, it works for me. And then Romans 1 takes sexual imorality even deeper. Pretty well covered I think.
  #19  
Old 8th June 2009, 03:28 AM
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Originally Posted by mnphysicist View Post
In regards to sexual immorality, its a tricky deal, and imho very culturally dependent. In the Greek, a literal read across any number of words that fall under "sexual immorality" ends up with much much narrower range of definitions than we have today. I dont know that cultural, as well as expansion over time of scripture is cool, but alas it is what contemporary translations have evolved into.

As far as the multiple partners thing and adultery... again, we run into cultural issues. An exceedingly literal view of scriptures, in the time the scriptures were written, whether right or wrong, would seem to lead one towards the view that adultery is a problem for anyone other than the first (with certain exceptions for divorce, death of spouse etc).
Sexual immorality to a Christian should be scriptural, not cultural!
  #20  
Old 8th June 2009, 04:23 AM
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Originally Posted by BjorkIsCool View Post
Meant to say simple, not simply. What else do you think isn't sexual immorality?
It makes sense to me that any sexual relationship that's based on love and doesn't result in anyone's harm isn't immoral.
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Down from the door where it began.
Now far ahead the Road has gone,
And I must follow, if I can,
Pursuing it with weary feet,
Until it joins some larger way,
Where many paths and errands meet.
And whither then? I cannot say."



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