It sounds to me like you are trying to teach people.
Of course if the author of the Epistle to the Hebrews meant absolutely that no saint is to try to teach another saint he would have never written the Epistle to the Hebrews. You are taking verses out of context. The point of the passage is that the Gospel has been clearly revealed. The point is not to do away with teachers otherwise Paul would not have written about how some are to serve as teachers in the body of Christ.
__________________ Poets have been mysteriously silent on the subject of cheese. - G.K. Chesterton
Please read the new covenant itself [Heb 8:8-12] , it states who are under grace and that they will not teach each other .
Thus saints do not teach saints ... they do however teach sinners, but sinners are not yet under grace until they stop sinning :-
So in your worldview, Christians do not need to teach Christians.
Please help me to understand the meaning of 1 Tim. 2:15 (KJV), “Notwithstanding she [the woman] shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety.”
How can the woman be saved through childbearing?
if one sins one is not being loving, one is disobeying Jesus so he is not one's lord if one still sins, but one's lord is Satan
This is what the Bible teaches:
If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness" (I John 1:8-9).
You cannot sustain your false teaching about Christians not sinning. In fact, if we teach this, the Bible is clear: "we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us."
Stranger,
So in your worldview, Christians do not need to teach Christians.
Like I tried to say, it ain't 'my' 'worldview' , I am not asserting anything from myself ... read what God says in the new covenant of Grace , it is not unclear :-
Hebrews 8:11 And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.
Who are the 'they' here who know God ... it explains :-
10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the House of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:
This is why Jesus says that he is sent by God only to the House of Israel :-
Matthew 15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the House of Israel.
The OT and NT both explain who the House of Israel were and are , that the Messiah [Christ] will be sent to unite them with the House of Judah in his kingdom into a holy nation of priests ,just as promised by God to Moses for the descendants of Israel :-
Exodus 19:6 And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These are the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel.
This is the good news then, the gospel of Christ [Messiah, anointed king of Israel] and the meaning of Israel's new covenant of grace with God is simply that He has said that they will be His priests for the kingdom of God and now they are thus forgiven without even meriting it [grace] for sake of His prophecy being true ,and to show the power of His truth to turn the will of men, even that of rebellious Israel who broke His old covenant [see verses 8-12 , the new covenant of grace is forgiveness of those who were rejected for breaking the old covenant , the two divided nations descended from Jacob, Israel's two Houses.
Why forgive only the priests for the kingdom then? Who do they serve as priests? Well obviously the priests need to be first , so that is why the few are taken by Jesus at his return [Matt 7:14, Rev 7:3-8, Jude 1:14] who have been made saints in this life by being taught by God's own holy spirit... we know that countless many of the gentiles are saved [Rev 7:9-10] , but we know this is later [Rev 7:9] because the many go by the broad way [Matt 7:13] through destruction at the end of this earth and cannot live again until after the Millenium [Revelation 20:5] ... so most are saved after death as sinners according to Jesus' witness , and not by grace but by works in the righteous kingdom of God at judgment day after hell [Hades] gives up all its dead :-
Revelation 20:13 ..death and hell delivered up the dead which were in them: and they were judged every man according to their works.
The wages of sin are paid in death then because becoming righteous in the kingdom with the ministry of Israel to help is enough to save , past sin is forgotten :-
Ezek 18:21 But if the wicked will turn from all his sins that he hath committed, and keep all my statutes, and do that which is lawful and right, he shall surely live, he shall not die.
22 All his transgressions that he hath committed, they shall not be mentioned unto him: in his righteousness that he hath done he shall live.
there is no second death for sin then for countless many gentiles who become righteous saints in the kingdom of God after the Millenium.
Please help me to understand the meaning of 1 Tim. 2:15 (KJV), “Notwithstanding she [the woman] shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety.” How can the woman be saved through childbearing?
This is what the Bible teaches:
The meaning is explained throughout the OT and NT , you will have to raed the scripture to understand it for yourself [else you will continue accusing me falsely ] , here is a summary if that is any use to motivate you to study the scripture for yourself :-
The 'woman' is used throughout scripture as a symbol of Israel 'married' to God because God chose Israel from the beginning to be the first who will be holy ... God puts away His 'wife' for unfaithfulness of not keeping the old covenant and returns to the 'wife of His youth' in the new covenant through the bearing of a son , the Messiah , Jesus ... thus the woman is saved in child-bearing if she continues faithfully in not sinning further.
Isa 54:5 For thy Maker is thine husband; the LORD of hosts is his name; and thy Redeemer the Holy One of Israel; The God of the whole earth shall he be called.
6 For the LORD hath called thee as a woman forsaken and grieved in spirit, and a wife of youth, when thou wast refused, saith thy God.
7 For a small moment have I forsaken thee; but with great mercies will I gather thee.
8 In a little wrath I hid my face from thee for a moment; but with everlasting kindness will I have mercy on thee, saith the LORD thy Redeemer.
Revelation 12:4 And his tail drew the third part of the stars of heaven, and did cast them to the earth: and the dragon stood before the woman which was ready to be delivered, for to devour her child as soon as it was born.
...
Revelation 12:13 And when the dragon saw that he was cast unto the earth, he persecuted the woman which brought forth the man child.
You cannot sustain your false teaching about Christians not sinning. In fact, if we teach this, the Bible is clear: "we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us."
As I have said, I don't teach , merely point at what the saints teach in scripture, thus you are accusing them of being false ... I see why you don't yet understand, but denying the witness of the saints is not an answer :-
1 John 3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil
2 Timothy 2:19 Nevertheless the foundation of God standeth sure, having this seal, The Lord knoweth them that are his. And, Let every one that nameth the name of Christ depart from iniquity.
We know from Jesus that all but the few [Matt 7:14] will not stop sinning in this life and that Israel will supply all the few sealed by God under grace [Rev 7:3-8] , so you need not worry that those dying sinners cannot be saved later since most go the broad way, but countless many of them are saved at judgment day [Rev 7:9-10,Rev 20:5]
simply note that the few who go the narrow strait way cannot be the countless many saved afterward ... so most people are saved later by the broad way to Jesus Christ through destruction in death freeing them from sin , not by grace which saves only those under grace of the new covenant with Israel.
Romans 6:23 For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
[Romans 6:7 For he that is dead is freed from sin.]
Israel are the holy priests of the new covenant by whose ministry in the kingdom countless many of all nations [gentiles] are later also saved .
But Th house of Israel are not a people, they have been living as gentiles amongst the gentiles for over two millennia now , scattered worldwde long before the Jews... that is why Jesus is sent to begin finding them and instructs all who follow him , the saints, to do so too in his 'great commission' [which most modern 'sinner Christians' ignore, not even knowing wh the House of Israel were and are] :-
Matthew 10:6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the House of Israel.
Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the House of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord andChrist.[Messiah, anointed king of Israel]
Like I tried to say, it ain't 'my' 'worldview' , I am not asserting anything from myself ... read what God says in the new covenant of Grace , it is not unclear :-
Hebrews 8:11 And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.
Who are the 'they' here who know God ... it explains :-
10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the House of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:
This is why Jesus says that he is sent by God only to the House of Israel :-
Because you don't believe in teaching, hermeneutics and understand NT Greek, it is very difficult to have a logical conversation with you on the interpretation of Scripture. You have an agenda of teaching that you are foisting on us.
I have showed you several Scriptures that contradict your view that Christians do not need teachers today, but you continue to engage in your own idiosyncratic type of teaching.
You fail to acknowledge the hermeneutic that Heb. 8:11 is a fulfillment of Jeremiah's prophecy in Jer. 31:31-34.
Continue to enjoy your ignorance that your teaching is not teaching.
Transliterated from the Greek, this is: ho poiwv ten hamartian ek tou diabolou estin
poiwn is a present tense, active voice participle meaning "continuing to do". So the one who lives a life of sin, with continuing actions of sinning, estin (present tense of the verb to be) -- continues to be of the devil.
An exegesis of the Greek text demonstrates that these are not single acts of sin (that would use the aorist tense of poiew = I do), but a continuing lifestyle of sin.
Therefore, the interpretation, based on Greek exegesis, is that the person who lives a lifestyle of sin continues to be of the devil. By deduction, such a person cannot be of God.
However, Christians who commit acts of sin, have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ, the righteous, who cleanses every believer who seeks forgiveness from single acts of sin.
It is time that you learned how to exegete the text correctly. In fact, it is time for you to have a teacher who teaches you these things. Up to this point in my interaction with you, you have not interpreted I John 3:8 (and some other Scriptures) exegetically and contextually.
Until you learn to exegete and interpret the text properly, we can't have a reasonable conversation.
Transliterated from the Greek, this is: ho poiwv ten hamartian ek tou diabolou estin
poiwn is a present tense, active voice participle meaning "continuing to do". So the one who lives a life of sin, with continuing actions of sinning, estin (present tense of the verb to be) -- continues to be of the devil.
An exegesis of the Greek text demonstrates that these are not single acts of sin (that would use the aorist tense of poiew = I do), but a continuing lifestyle of sin.
Therefore, the interpretation, based on Greek exegesis, is that the person who lives a lifestyle of sin continues to be of the devil. By deduction, such a person cannot be of God.
However, Christians who commit acts of sin, have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ, the righteous, who cleanses every believer who seeks forgiveness from single acts of sin.
It is time that you learned how to exegete the text correctly. In fact, it is time for you to have a teacher who teaches you these things. Up to this point in my interaction with you, you have not interpreted I John 3:8 (and some other Scriptures) exegetically and contextually.
Until you learn to exegete and interpret the text properly, we can't have a reasonable conversation.
Again, I have no argument with you ... your point is valid, but it makes no difference to what was said ... one has to stop 'continuing sin' to be a saint, no sinner is going to be taken by Jesus ...
stranger:
It sounds to me like you are trying to teach people.
We all make mistakes ... I am not sure why you persist in refusing to accept my explanation of why you are mistaken...
Of course if the author of the Epistle to the Hebrews meant absolutely that no saint is to try to teach another saint he would have never written the Epistle to the Hebrews. You are taking verses out of context. The point of the passage is that the Gospel has been clearly revealed. The point is not to do away with teachers otherwise Paul would not have written about how some are to serve as teachers in the body of Christ.
Again you missed the point made in the new covenant itself , so please read it again and understand what it says [Heb 8:8-12]
No-one under grace needs to be taught by anyone because God Himself teaches all who are under grace, puts His law within heart and mind.
Also note that all who are under grace are descendants of those who broke the old covenant with Israel , all are Israelites although some are of the House of Israel who have been living amongst gentiles as gentiles for two and a half millenia now ... the lost holy nation of God to whom alone Jesus was sent by God , but living as gentiles scattered worldwide long before the Jews scattering .
Thus some SAINTS do teach gentile and Jewish sinners , but no SAINT teaches a SAINT ,because God alone teaches SAINTS.
What divided modern religion is that sinners started teaching sinners ,and it has never looked back since to reprove traditions of sinners in religion to all the scripture of saints and prophets of God ...
No-one under grace needs to be taught by anyone because God Himself teaches all who are under grace, puts His law within heart and mind.
You are a stranger to biblical teaching. I Cor. 12:28-29; Eph. 4:11; Heb. 5:12;James 3:1 refute your view.
In fact, James 3:1 states: Not many of you should become teachers, my brothers, for you know that we who teach will be judged with greater strictness" (ESV). This verse would be pointless if there were no ministry of the teacher in the church following the death of the apostles.
You are a stranger to biblical teaching. I Cor. 12:28-29; Eph. 4:11; Heb. 5:12;James 3:1 refute your view.
In fact, James 3:1 states: Not many of you should become teachers, my brothers, for you know that we who teach will be judged with greater strictness" (ESV). This verse would be pointless if there were no ministry of the teacher in the church following the death of the apostles.
Why would you imagine that the apostles are the only saints ?????
There have been 144,000 saints of Israel by the time Jesus returns [Rev 7:3-8]
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