Drag-n-drop, do you have any thoughts on this question? If God established the ten commandments before the fall, why did He allow Deuteronoy 5:1-5 and Galatians 3:15-19 to be written?
BFA
Are you asking me? I do not believe the premise, i.e God established the 10 commandments before the fall...
__________________ Just because you are delusional doesn't mean I have to enter into "your" world.... - Claborn
I was hoping for a reply that might deal with that which is written in Deut. 5 and Galatians 3, presumably from DND or others who share his viewpoint. From your prior posts, it seems that you do not share DND's viewpoint on this subject. If I've misunderstood, please let me know.
BFA
Last edited by Byfaithalone1; 6th May 2009 at 03:22 PM.
It's been long. I'm busy working on a study pertaining the 1844 Doctrine and Ellen White's strange visions. I have not had time to deal with Sabbath related issues lately.
In reply to BFA question this is what I'd say:
First let me follow the train of your logic. Deut 5:1-5 prove that God
established a particular Covenant with Israel for the very first time with Israel in Moses' time.
Then I'd presume that the next step is to conclude that the Ten Commandments (which includes the 4th /Sabbath) called the 'tables of
the Covenant' or 'Law of the Covenant' did not exist before Moses because before Moses there was no Covenant. Right ?
Gal 3:15-19 speaks of a covenant and a promise made to Abraham and a law given to Israel 430 yrs latter. This again would prove that there were
no 10 Commandments (incl.Sabbath) before the Fall. Right ?
Is that where you're going with this ? If we're saying this, then without the law how did Abraham, Cain, Joseph know that murder, adultery was sin without the law ?
On another subject. Why don't you guys believe that God was setting and example in Gen 2:1-3 ? I do not get crystal clear your reasons. Please specify your reasons. Spell your reasons out.
It's been long. I'm busy working on a study pertaining the 1844 Doctrine and Ellen White's strange visions. I have not had time to deal with Sabbath related issues lately.
In reply to BFA question this is what I'd say:
First let me follow the train of your logic. Deut 5:1-5 prove that God
established a particular Covenant with Israel for the very first time with Israel in Moses' time.
Then I'd presume that the next step is to conclude that the Ten Commandments (which includes the 4th /Sabbath) called the 'tables of
the Covenant' or 'Law of the Covenant' did not exist before Moses because before Moses there was no Covenant. Right ?
Gal 3:15-19 speaks of a covenant and a promise made to Abraham and a law given to Israel 430 yrs latter. This again would prove that there were
no 10 Commandments (incl.Sabbath) before the Fall. Right ?
Is that where you're going with this ? If we're saying this, then without the law how did Abraham, Cain, Joseph know that murder, adultery was sin without the law ?
On another subject. Why don't you guys believe that God was setting and example in Gen 2:1-3 ? I do not get crystal clear your reasons. Please specify your reasons. Spell your reasons out.
Do you need a law to tell you that murder is wrong?
__________________ Therefore we do not lose heart. Though outwardly we are wasting away, yet inwardly we are being renewed day by day. For our light and momentary troubles are achieving for us an eternal glory that far outweighs them all. So we fix our eyes not on what is seen, but on what is unseen. For what is seen is temporary, but what is unseen is eternal. (2 Corinthians 4:16-18)
The Bible teaches that the law was added, not that it always existed.
If we're saying this, then without the law how did Abraham, Cain, Joseph know that murder, adultery was sin without the law?
The same way that persons living since the Seed has come know that sin exists--the Holy Spirit. See John 14 and John 16.
On another subject. Why don't you guys believe that God was setting and example in Gen 2:1-3 ? I do not get crystal clear your reasons. Please specify your reasons. Spell your reasons out.
Because the passage does not say that God was setting an example in Genesis 2:1-3. This idea is wholly based on an assumption. A number of assumptions are connected with it. These include:
(1) God continued to set aside each seventh day as a day of rest,
(2) God will continue to set aside each seventh day as a day of rest throughout eternity,
(3) men who lived prior to Moses set aside each seventh day as a day of rest,
(4) men who lived following Christ's ascension set aside each seventh day as a day of rest,
(5) in Heaven, men will continue to set aside each seventh day as a day of rest,
(6) those who do not set aside each seventh day as a day of rest will one day be in danger of receiving the mark of the beast, and
(7) the issue of setting aside each seventh day as a day of rest will one day be the great dividing wall between those who are of God and those who are not of God.
It is problematic when an entire system of theology is built upon a series of assumptions.
BFA
Last edited by Byfaithalone1; 8th May 2009 at 11:13 AM.
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