For those who see the KJV as the only inspired version of the Bible, I have 22 questions I would like for them to answer:
1. Which KJV do you most believe in: the original 1611 version (which is almost impossible for modern people to read) or the 1613, 1629, 1638, 1644, 1664, 1701, 1744, 1762, 1769, or 1850 (the one publishers use today) revisions? There are many hundreds of changes in words, word order, possessives, singulars, plurals, articles, pronouns, conjunctions, prepositions, entire phrases, and the addition and deletion of words from 1611 to 1850.
2. How do you KNOW which of these versions is MORE correct than the others?
3. Where was the "word of God" prior to 1611? Where was it before the development of Elizabethan English?
4. Were the KJV translators wrong, or were they liars, when they said ""the very meanest [i.e., poorest] translation" is still "the word of God?"
5. Did our Pilgrim Fathers have "the word of God" when they brought the Geneva Bible translation (instead of the KJV) with them to North America?
6. In what language did Jesus Christ teach that the Old Testament would be preserved forever according to Matthew 5:18?
7. Is only the KJV, to the exclusion of all other translations, infallible? If so, how do you know?
8. Where does the Bible teach that God will perfectly preserve His Word in the form of one seventeenth-century English translation?
9. Do you believe the English KJV was "given by inspiration of God?" Did the KJV translators mislead their readers by saying that their New Testament was "translated out of the original Greek?" [title page of KJV N.T.] Were they misleading for claiming to have used "the original Greek" from which to translate?
10. How did the great Protestant Reformation (1517-1603) take place without the 1611 "word of God"? Then what translations of "the word of God," used by the Reformers, was the absolutely infallible and inerrant ones? (Their main Bibles are well-known and copies still exist.)
11. If the KJV is "God's infallible and preserved word to the English-speaking people," as KJV proponents claim, did the "English-speaking people" have "the word of God" from 1525-1604? Was Tyndale's (1525), or Coverdale's (1535), or Matthew's (1537), or the Great (1539), or the Geneva (1560) English Bibles absolutely infallible?
12. Which reading is the verbally (word-for-word) inerrant scripture — "whom ye" (Cambridge KJV) or, "whom he" (Oxford KJV) at Jeremiah 34:16? Which reading is the verbally (word-for-word) inerrant scripture — "sin" (Cambridge) or "sins" (Oxford) at 2 Chronicles 33:19? Which one is the infallible "INERRANT KJV"?
13. Does it matter that history shows that King James I, whose name adorns the cover of your Bible and whose name champions the KJV-Only cause, was a practicing adulterer, homosexual and pedophile? (For documentation: Antonia Fraser, "King James VI of Scotland, I of England," Knopf, 1975, pgs.36-37, 123. Caroline Bingham, "The Making of a King," Doubleday, 1969, pgs.128-129, 197-198. Otto J. Scott, "James," Mason-Charter, 1976, pgs.108, 111, 120, 194, 200, 224, 311, 353, 382. David H. Wilson, "King James VI & I," Oxford, 1956, pgs.36, 99-101, 336-337, 383-386, 395. Plus numerous encyclopedias and articles.)
14. Would it matter to you that KJV translator, Richard Thomson, who worked on Genesis through Kings in the Westminster group, was "led by God in translating" even though he was an alcoholic that "drank his fill daily" throughout the work? (Gustavus S. Paine, "The Men Behind the KJV," Baker Book House, 1979, pgs. 40, 69.)
15. Does the singular "oath’s," occurring in every KJV at Matthew 14:9 and Mark 6:26, "correct" every Textus Receptus Greek (from which the KJV was translated into English) which has the plural ("oaths") by the post-1611 publishers, misplacing the apostrophe?
16. Is the Holy Spirit an "it" according to KJV John 1:32; Romans 8:16, 26; and 1 Peter 1:11 in the KJV? (Sorry, you may not resort to the Greek for any light if you are a true KJV-Onlyite!)
17. Does Luke 23:56 support a "Friday" crucifixion in the KJV? (FYI, There is no "day" here in Greek.)
18. Is KJV-Onlyite Don Edwards correct in agreeing "in favor of canonizing our KJV," thus replacing the inspired canon in Hebrew and Greek? (The Flaming Torch, June 1989, page 6). And did God supernaturally "move His Word from the original languages to English" in 1611 as affirmed by The Flaming Torch? [same page as above]
19. Do you believe in or read the KJV Apocrypha which was included as integral to the original 1611 translation? If not, why not?
20. Does it matter that the KJV translators offered more than 8,000 alternate English renderings from Greek and Hebrew manuscripts? For example, Judges 19:2 shows an instance where the meaning of the Hebrew is obscure. Was it "four months" or "a year and four months" as the alternate reading (margin) indicates? Quite a difference! But the structure of the Hebrew makes it difficult for any translator to know for sure which it is. So they show the alternate reading, not knowing themselves for sure which is correct! No one questions the Greek-Hebrew is inspired. But if the translators were also inspired by the Holy Spirit, in their work of translating the inspired Hebrew into English, they would have been guided by divine inspiration to the correct rendering, hence no need for any alternate readings in the margin.
21. Are non-English translations used by Christians in other nations without merit because they are not the KJV?
22. If the KJV is proper form of English then why don’t you speak it? (Although, truthfully, I have heard my share of prayers in KJ English.)
My problem with the idea of KJV only is that most people who prescribe to this idea don't speak the original greek or hebrew. They're just taking someone elses word that it's a better translation. Not speaking either hebrew or greek myself I can't claim any different, but lacking that I choose to diversify instead. My current primary bible is an English Standard Version. It's a more recent translation which works on a word for word base. I back that up with the NIV, NLT and KJV, and have access (via my roomie) to about 10 other versions. A pretty broad base.
They all say the same thing, just in different words. So this fuss over which is more "correct" sort of confuses me. They're all correct, just made for different users.
If you wish to continue this in the non-denominational forum then I will be more than happy to answer your questions!
Originally Posted by Jim M
For those who see the KJV as the only inspired version of the Bible, I have 22 questions I would like for them to answer:
1. Which KJV do you most believe in: the original 1611 version (which is almost impossible for modern people to read) or the 1613, 1629, 1638, 1644, 1664, 1701, 1744, 1762, 1769, or 1850 (the one publishers use today) revisions? There are many hundreds of changes in words, word order, possessives, singulars, plurals, articles, pronouns, conjunctions, prepositions, entire phrases, and the addition and deletion of words from 1611 to 1850.
2. How do you KNOW which of these versions is MORE correct than the others?
3. Where was the "word of God" prior to 1611? Where was it before the development of Elizabethan English?
4. Were the KJV translators wrong, or were they liars, when they said ""the very meanest [i.e., poorest] translation" is still "the word of God?"
5. Did our Pilgrim Fathers have "the word of God" when they brought the Geneva Bible translation (instead of the KJV) with them to North America?
6. In what language did Jesus Christ teach that the Old Testament would be preserved forever according to Matthew 5:18?
7. Is only the KJV, to the exclusion of all other translations, infallible? If so, how do you know?
8. Where does the Bible teach that God will perfectly preserve His Word in the form of one seventeenth-century English translation?
9. Do you believe the English KJV was "given by inspiration of God?" Did the KJV translators mislead their readers by saying that their New Testament was "translated out of the original Greek?" [title page of KJV N.T.] Were they misleading for claiming to have used "the original Greek" from which to translate?
10. How did the great Protestant Reformation (1517-1603) take place without the 1611 "word of God"? Then what translations of "the word of God," used by the Reformers, was the absolutely infallible and inerrant ones? (Their main Bibles are well-known and copies still exist.)
11. If the KJV is "God's infallible and preserved word to the English-speaking people," as KJV proponents claim, did the "English-speaking people" have "the word of God" from 1525-1604? Was Tyndale's (1525), or Coverdale's (1535), or Matthew's (1537), or the Great (1539), or the Geneva (1560) English Bibles absolutely infallible?
12. Which reading is the verbally (word-for-word) inerrant scripture — "whom ye" (Cambridge KJV) or, "whom he" (Oxford KJV) at Jeremiah 34:16? Which reading is the verbally (word-for-word) inerrant scripture — "sin" (Cambridge) or "sins" (Oxford) at 2 Chronicles 33:19? Which one is the infallible "INERRANT KJV"?
13. Does it matter that history shows that King James I, whose name adorns the cover of your Bible and whose name champions the KJV-Only cause, was a practicing adulterer, homosexual and pedophile? (For documentation: Antonia Fraser, "King James VI of Scotland, I of England," Knopf, 1975, pgs.36-37, 123. Caroline Bingham, "The Making of a King," Doubleday, 1969, pgs.128-129, 197-198. Otto J. Scott, "James," Mason-Charter, 1976, pgs.108, 111, 120, 194, 200, 224, 311, 353, 382. David H. Wilson, "King James VI & I," Oxford, 1956, pgs.36, 99-101, 336-337, 383-386, 395. Plus numerous encyclopedias and articles.)
14. Would it matter to you that KJV translator, Richard Thomson, who worked on Genesis through Kings in the Westminster group, was "led by God in translating" even though he was an alcoholic that "drank his fill daily" throughout the work? (Gustavus S. Paine, "The Men Behind the KJV," Baker Book House, 1979, pgs. 40, 69.)
15. Does the singular "oath’s," occurring in every KJV at Matthew 14:9 and Mark 6:26, "correct" every Textus Receptus Greek (from which the KJV was translated into English) which has the plural ("oaths") by the post-1611 publishers, misplacing the apostrophe?
16. Is the Holy Spirit an "it" according to KJV John 1:32; Romans 8:16, 26; and 1 Peter 1:11 in the KJV? (Sorry, you may not resort to the Greek for any light if you are a true KJV-Onlyite!)
17. Does Luke 23:56 support a "Friday" crucifixion in the KJV? (FYI, There is no "day" here in Greek.)
18. Is KJV-Onlyite Don Edwards correct in agreeing "in favor of canonizing our KJV," thus replacing the inspired canon in Hebrew and Greek? (The Flaming Torch, June 1989, page 6). And did God supernaturally "move His Word from the original languages to English" in 1611 as affirmed by The Flaming Torch? [same page as above]
19. Do you believe in or read the KJV Apocrypha which was included as integral to the original 1611 translation? If not, why not?
20. Does it matter that the KJV translators offered more than 8,000 alternate English renderings from Greek and Hebrew manuscripts? For example, Judges 19:2 shows an instance where the meaning of the Hebrew is obscure. Was it "four months" or "a year and four months" as the alternate reading (margin) indicates? Quite a difference! But the structure of the Hebrew makes it difficult for any translator to know for sure which it is. So they show the alternate reading, not knowing themselves for sure which is correct! No one questions the Greek-Hebrew is inspired. But if the translators were also inspired by the Holy Spirit, in their work of translating the inspired Hebrew into English, they would have been guided by divine inspiration to the correct rendering, hence no need for any alternate readings in the margin.
21. Are non-English translations used by Christians in other nations without merit because they are not the KJV?
22. If the KJV is proper form of English then why don’t you speak it? (Although, truthfully, I have heard my share of prayers in KJ English.)
"The earth is the Lord’s, and everything in it.
The world and all its people belong to him.
For he laid the earth’s foundation on the seas
and built it on the ocean depths." Psalm 24:1, 2
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For those who see the KJV as the only inspired version of the Bible, I have 22 questions I would like for them to answer:
Were there any questions in this dealing with the fact that Jimmy was the head ( ie pope ) of the Anglican group which was a very , very small step from the Catholic group ? That doesn't matter to me but many KJV people are very anti-catholic .
Were there any questions in this dealing with the fact that Jimmy was the head ( ie pope ) of the Anglican group which was a very , very small step from the Catholic group ? That doesn't matter to me but many KJV people are very anti-catholic .
Excessively so I would say...
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1 Cor 4:20 For the kingdom of God is not in word but in power.
Personally I give preference to NKJV. But interpreting English-speaking preachers I mostly have to use KJV. Interestingly, Russian Christians have no such problem as we all accept our canonical Bible which is considered to be one of the best versions in the world. I must admit, both KJV and NKJV are similar to it.
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What Really Matters…
Is How You See Yourself!
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Let thy garments be always white;
and let thy head lack no ointment
Ec.9:8
"The words of the LORD are pure words, As silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, Thou shalt preserve them from this generation forever." Psalm 12:6,7
"Heaven and earth shall pass away, But my words shall not pass away." Matthew 24:35
Our LORD promised to preserve the Holy Scriptures and so the Greek Textus Receptus, from which the Authorized King James Version was translated, is the true Word of God. Hence the AKJV is also the true Word of God.
__________________
"The earth is the Lord’s, and everything in it.
The world and all its people belong to him.
For he laid the earth’s foundation on the seas
and built it on the ocean depths." Psalm 24:1, 2
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