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6th November 2008, 06:49 AM
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Reps: 9,274,249 (power: 9,291) | | Originally Posted by Aggie For normal IQ tests, the stereotype threat possibility definitely doesn’t explain why scores would differ between 100% African children raised by white families and mixed-race children raised by white families, especially when the mixed-race children believe themselves to be 100% African. I don’t think the stereotypes are any different—as I said before, 50% African people such as Obama are still just thought of as being “black”—but even if the stereotypes are different, people aren’t able to be affected by stereotypes of a heritage that they don’t know they have. So any explanation for the IQ difference that ascribes it to inaccurate testing will have to explain why stereotype threats for mental chronometry, and whatever’s causing the difference for normal IQ tests in the adoption study, would both affect the results in exactly the same way.
What Plindboe said. Also with regard to the bolded statement you make, how was this tested? You made an earlier statement that the IQ differences held up for children who did thought they had both an African-American mother and father, while one of them actually was Caucasian. But how was this tested? According to the wiki article, there were 12 kids in this group and the difference did not differ significantly from the rest of the interracial group. I need to see the numbers here, but I'm very skeptical of how much this statement says based on a sample of 12 (on a larger note, I'm often very skeptical about significance testing without having insight in means and confidence intervals of the different tested groups and everybody should be).
__________________ Tom 'What luck for rulers, that men do not think.' -Ascribed to Adolf Hitler- `Contrariwise,' continued Tweedledee, `if it was so, it might be; and if it were so, it would be; but as it isn't, it ain't. That's logic.' -Through the Looking Glas by Lewis Caroll- Statistics are like a bikini. What they reveal is suggestive, but what they conceal is vital. --Aaron Levenstein | 
6th November 2008, 11:23 AM
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Reps: 18,604,695,596,698 (power: 18,604,695,606) | | Originally Posted by plindboe True, but the original study doesn't seem to separate the mixed children into 2 groups of 1."White mother & black father" and 2."Black mother & white father", it simply says "One white and one black biological parent". So let's consider the possibility that prenatal exposures was a significant contributor to the measured differences. Then mixed children with a white mother and black father would score an IQ more similar to children with 2 white biological parents, and mixed children with a black mother and white father would score an IQ more similar to children with 2 black biological parents. But since the study has lumped these scores into the same group, the average score they present would wound up somewhere in the middle.
In order for prenatal factors to explain why a group that half had African fathers and Caucasian mothers, and half had Caucasian fathers and African mothers, had an average IQ exactly halfway between a group of 100% Africans and a group of 100% Caucasians, prenatal environment would have to be the only environmental factor contributing to the IQ difference. If any other environmental factors were playing a role, the mixed-race kids who believed themselves to have two African parents would not have scored exactly halfway between the other groups like this. If that’s really the reason for it, then if you look at the individual IQ numbers for each mixed-race child, there should be a very visible division in IQ between those with white mothers (higher) and those with African mothers (lower).
This would be a significant enough element of the results that I suspect the Wikipedia article would have mentioned it if it had been the case, but I guess we ought to look at the original paper to make sure. Tomk80 offered to try and get the paper through his library, and if he isn’t able to, I suspect that at least Jason Malloy has it. I can try asking him for it if Tomk80 can’t get it.
In the meantime, though, here’s something I’d like to ask about this: what prenatal factors are you aware of that could vary with race regardless of socio-economic status? Is there any specific one that you think could be contributing to these results? Originally Posted by Tomk80 What Plindboe said. Also with regard to the bolded statement you make, how was this tested? You made an earlier statement that the IQ differences held up for children who did thought they had both an African-American mother and father, while one of them actually was Caucasian. But how was this tested? According to the wiki article, there were 12 kids in this group and the difference did not differ significantly from the rest of the interracial group. I need to see the numbers here, but I'm very skeptical of how much this statement says based on a sample of 12 (on a larger note, I'm often very skeptical about significance testing without having insight in means and confidence intervals of the different tested groups and everybody should be).
You’ll be able to see more of the actual numbers if you manage to find the paper through your library. Do you think you’ll be able to? If not, I can ask Jason Malloy whether he has it.
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6th November 2008, 01:21 PM
|  | Titleless 31  | | Join Date: 28th April 2004 Location: Maastricht
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Reps: 9,274,249 (power: 9,291) | | Originally Posted by Aggie In order for prenatal factors to explain why a group that half had African fathers and Caucasian mothers, and half had Caucasian fathers and African mothers, had an average IQ exactly halfway between a group of 100% Africans and a group of 100% Caucasians, prenatal environment would have to be the only environmental factor contributing to the IQ difference. If any other environmental factors were playing a role, the mixed-race kids who believed themselves to have two African parents would not have scored exactly halfway between the other groups like this. If that’s really the reason for it, then if you look at the individual IQ numbers for each mixed-race child, there should be a very visible division in IQ between those with white mothers (higher) and those with African mothers (lower).
Wait. At least if I go from what wikipedia states, the statement is that the average score of the 12 mixed children who think they have two black parents is not significantly different from the other interracial children. This does not mean that they scored exactly halfway in between and confidence intervals of these 12 might have easily overlapped with the other two groups, in which case they wouldn't differ significantly from the other groups either. This would be a significant enough element of the results that I suspect the Wikipedia article would have mentioned it if it had been the case, but I guess we ought to look at the original paper to make sure. Tomk80 offered to try and get the paper through his library, and if he isn’t able to, I suspect that at least Jason Malloy has it. I can try asking him for it if Tomk80 can’t get it.
So I at least tracked down a number of the papers up to 1994. I have yet to track down the 2000 reanalysis, apparantly it wasn't published in a journal but rather in a book. So it may be a bit harder to get. In the meantime, though, here’s something I’d like to ask about this: what prenatal factors are you aware of that could vary with race regardless of socio-economic status? Is there any specific one that you think could be contributing to these results?
Why regardless of socio-economic status? Even if they corrected for SES these factors might still be of influence. General factors would be diet and exposure to contaminants. Next to this, I don't know from the information I have so far what age the children would be adopted. Next, adoption experiences might also be of influence. Whether a child looks more African-American or more Caucasian could be of further influence. Again, I'll know more about correction etc once I read the paper and a number of commentaries (on both methodology and results) I requested. You’ll be able to see more of the actual numbers if you manage to find the paper through your library. Do you think you’ll be able to? If not, I can ask Jason Malloy whether he has it.
__________________ Tom 'What luck for rulers, that men do not think.' -Ascribed to Adolf Hitler- `Contrariwise,' continued Tweedledee, `if it was so, it might be; and if it were so, it would be; but as it isn't, it ain't. That's logic.' -Through the Looking Glas by Lewis Caroll- Statistics are like a bikini. What they reveal is suggestive, but what they conceal is vital. --Aaron Levenstein | 
6th November 2008, 03:31 PM
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Reps: 38,672,220,164,744,672 (power: 38,672,220,164,753) | | Originally Posted by Aggie In order for prenatal factors to explain why a group that half had African fathers and Caucasian mothers, and half had Caucasian fathers and African mothers, had an average IQ exactly halfway between a group of 100% Africans and a group of 100% Caucasians, prenatal environment would have to be the only environmental factor contributing to the IQ difference. If any other environmental factors were playing a role, the mixed-race kids who believed themselves to have two African parents would not have scored exactly halfway between the other groups like this. If that’s really the reason for it, then if you look at the individual IQ numbers for each mixed-race child, there should be a very visible division in IQ between those with white mothers (higher) and those with African mothers (lower).
I'm not sure it would be that easy to tell, but I guess it would be worth a try. Would be interesting to read some more details about the study in any case. Originally Posted by Aggie In the meantime, though, here’s something I’d like to ask about this: what prenatal factors are you aware of that could vary with race regardless of socio-economic status? Is there any specific one that you think could be contributing to these results?
I had none in mind. Just thought that you dismissed Tomk80's suggestion a bit prematurely.
Peter | 
6th November 2008, 03:43 PM
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Reps: 18,604,695,596,698 (power: 18,604,695,606) | | Originally Posted by Tomk80 Wait. At least if I go from what wikipedia states, the statement is that the average score of the 12 mixed children who think they have two black parents is not significantly different from the other interracial children. This does not mean that they scored exactly halfway in between and confidence intervals of these 12 might have easily overlapped with the other two groups, in which case they wouldn't differ significantly from the other groups either.
I posted the actual IQ numbers in post #18. It’s a difference of 10-14 points between the 100% African children and the mixed-race children, and a difference of around 5-9 points between the mixed-race children and the white children. I guess I shouldn’t have said it’s exactly half, since the first difference is a little larger. But what I’m saying is that if any environmental factors other than prenatal conditions were playing a role in this, you’d expect the difference between the white children and the mixed-race children to be larger than between the mixed-race children and the 100% African children, not the other way around. I don’t think there’s any question that the difference in stereotypes between white people and 50% African people is greater than the difference between 50% African people and 100% African people, as is the case with just about any other cultural factor. Originally Posted by Tomk80 Why regardless of socio-economic status? Even if they corrected for SES these factors might still be of influence. General factors would be diet and exposure to contaminants. Next to this, I don't know from the information I have so far what age the children would be adopted. Next, adoption experiences might also be of influence. Whether a child looks more African-American or more Caucasian could be of further influence. Again, I'll know more about correction etc once I read the paper and a number of commentaries (on both methodology and results) I requested.
A lot of the research about this involving people raised by their biological parents controls for SES. I linked to this chart earlier, which shows that when you control for SES, the IQ difference shrinks but doesn’t disappear. So assuming that the cause of the IQ difference is the same in each of these studies, it isn’t caused by SES, or anything that strongly correlates with SES.
According to the Gene Expression article, the adoption study controlled for all of the most obvious environmental factors that can vary between races—parenting, income, nutrition (after adoption) and neighborhood. Regarding nutritional factors before adoption, the APA analysis states that diet doesn’t affect IQ except in cases of severe malnutrition, so it would have to be exposure to contaminants if it’s anything in that category. What contaminants might African-Americans be exposed to more than Caucasians, even when socio-economic conditions are equal?
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6th November 2008, 04:06 PM
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Reps: 18,604,695,596,698 (power: 18,604,695,606) | | Originally Posted by plindboe I had none in mind. Just thought that you dismissed Tomk80's suggestion a bit prematurely.
As I said before, I don’t think it’s possible to be 100% certain that the difference in IQ is genetic, at least not without more research being necessary. So I’m not really dismissing his suggestion as being impossible. What I’m saying is just that as long as you can’t come up with a specific environmental factor which could be causing this, whereas a genetic pattern which could be causing it has been identified, an explanation that involves genetic factors is the more parsimonious of the two.
I wasn’t as knowledgeable about this topic when we debated about it around a year ago, so although my point was the same, I wasn’t able to support it as well. As you might remember, my main problem with an 100% environmental explanation isn’t that it’s not possible, but that it involves an argument from ignorance—you’re basically just saying “environment did it”, even though there isn’t any more specific explanation, which means attributing it to some unknown environmental factor is a hypothesis which can’t be tested. You agreed with this, but said there was the same problem with attributing the difference to genetics (or saying “genetics did it”), and at the time I didn’t really have a response to that. But during the time since then, I’ve learned that as the genes which influence intelligence are being discovered, they’re being found to be distributed in the ways one would expect to be the case if the genetic hypothesis were true. So while still not enough to be considered “proof”, this shows that the genetic hypothesis is testable, and that tests are supporting it.
Does that make sense?
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6th November 2008, 05:53 PM
|  | Titleless 31  | | Join Date: 28th April 2004 Location: Maastricht
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Reps: 9,274,249 (power: 9,291) | | Originally Posted by Aggie I posted the actual IQ numbers in post #18. It’s a difference of 10-14 points between the 100% African children and the mixed-race children, and a difference of around 5-9 points between the mixed-race children and the white children. I guess I shouldn’t have said it’s exactly half, since the first difference is a little larger. But what I’m saying is that if any environmental factors other than prenatal conditions were playing a role in this, you’d expect the difference between the white children and the mixed-race children to be larger than between the mixed-race children and the 100% African children, not the other way around. I don’t think there’s any question that the difference in stereotypes between white people and 50% African people is greater than the difference between 50% African people and 100% African people, as is the case with just about any other cultural factor.
Only of the general groups. The point I was responding to was your point about the 12 interracial children who thought both their parents were black. I haven't seen any data on that specific group, which is one of the things I'm interested in. A lot of the research about this involving people raised by their biological parents controls for SES. I linked to this chart earlier, which shows that when you control for SES, the IQ difference shrinks but doesn’t disappear. So assuming that the cause of the IQ difference is the same in each of these studies, it isn’t caused by SES, or anything that strongly correlates with SES.
According to the Gene Expression article, the adoption study controlled for all of the most obvious environmental factors that can vary between races—parenting, income, nutrition (after adoption) and neighborhood. Regarding nutritional factors before adoption, the APA analysis states that diet doesn’t affect IQ except in cases of severe malnutrition, so it would have to be exposure to contaminants if it’s anything in that category. What contaminants might African-Americans be exposed to more than Caucasians, even when socio-economic conditions are equal?
But you see in the correction factors you name, that taken one measure of SES into account, income, still necessitates correction for the other factors. So while it is an indicator of circumstances, it is not a perfect measure and other factors still need to be taken into account. That way lead could still form a problem, to take an example.
The problem here is that SES can only be approximated. We can only use surrogate measures for these many of them don't cover the load completely. Income, achieved education, job status have all been used as indicators of SES, but none of them are perfect. For example, education achieved only covers part of the "education experience", namely how long someone has studied and which degrees he got. But if you take that measure and also input the quality of education, you explain more of the variation in IQ between races than if you only use the education achieved.
Which is one of my main gripes here. I'm very skeptical on what SES actually means when you use it. It depends on the study, the exact measures used. You never really input "SES". You input income, or years of education followed, or poverty index.
__________________ Tom 'What luck for rulers, that men do not think.' -Ascribed to Adolf Hitler- `Contrariwise,' continued Tweedledee, `if it was so, it might be; and if it were so, it would be; but as it isn't, it ain't. That's logic.' -Through the Looking Glas by Lewis Caroll- Statistics are like a bikini. What they reveal is suggestive, but what they conceal is vital. --Aaron Levenstein | 
6th November 2008, 08:52 PM
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Reps: 38,672,220,164,744,672 (power: 38,672,220,164,753) | | Originally Posted by Aggie As I said before, I don’t think it’s possible to be 100% certain that the difference in IQ is genetic, at least not without more research being necessary. So I’m not really dismissing his suggestion as being impossible. What I’m saying is just that as long as you can’t come up with a specific environmental factor which could be causing this, whereas a genetic pattern which could be causing it has been identified, an explanation that involves genetic factors is the more parsimonious of the two.
I didn't have any specific in mind, but I'm sure if one had the time one could go on a statistics hunt for environmental factors and come up with several suggestions. If one finds higher numbers of blacks compared to whites who drink, smoke, take drugs etc. during pregnancy, or more often give birth to babies with lower birth weights, or contain a higher amount of various harmful elements due to poor nutrition (I read somewhere that black people have greater amounts of lead in their bodies than white people, which can have negative consequences for future intelligence). I think several of these factors I mentioned, and probably several I haven't, have been shown to have harmful effects on development and intelligence, and I can't imagine it would be insurmountable to find some of these factors at higher frequencies in some groups compared to others.
Of course it would just be correlation hunting, one could then cherrypick the factors that came up with the best results and "predictive" powers. Bias can be risky, and is always a danger when one has a favourite hypothesis in mind.
Of course I haven't seen the evidence you mentioned yet, so I don't mean to sound like I've judged it beforehand. Originally Posted by Aggie I wasn’t as knowledgeable about this topic when we debated about it around a year ago, so although my point was the same, I wasn’t able to support it as well. As you might remember, my main problem with an 100% environmental explanation isn’t that it’s not possible, but that it involves an argument from ignorance—you’re basically just saying “environment did it”, even though there isn’t any more specific explanation, which means attributing it to some unknown environmental factor is a hypothesis which can’t be tested. You agreed with this, but said there was the same problem with attributing the difference to genetics (or saying “genetics did it”), and at the time I didn’t really have a response to that. But during the time since then, I’ve learned that as the genes which influence intelligence are being discovered, they’re being found to be distributed in the ways one would expect to be the case if the genetic hypothesis were true. So while still not enough to be considered “proof”, this shows that the genetic hypothesis is testable, and that tests are supporting it.
Does that make sense?
Yep. I'd like to see more of this evidence. Is it that link in #22? If it is, it doesn't appear to work for the moment.
But I don't think I'll have much intelligent to say about it these days, as I'm reading about 10 hours daily, and I don't have time to have a proper debate. But if you leave some good links, I'll bookmark them and will study them in a near future.
Peter | 
6th November 2008, 10:03 PM
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Reps: 18,604,695,596,698 (power: 18,604,695,606) | | Originally Posted by Tomk80 The problem here is that SES can only be approximated. We can only use surrogate measures for these many of them don't cover the load completely. Income, achieved education, job status have all been used as indicators of SES, but none of them are perfect. For example, education achieved only covers part of the "education experience", namely how long someone has studied and which degrees he got. But if you take that measure and also input the quality of education, you explain more of the variation in IQ between races than if you only use the education achieved.
Which is one of my main gripes here. I'm very skeptical on what SES actually means when you use it. It depends on the study, the exact measures used. You never really input "SES". You input income, or years of education followed, or poverty index.
According to the sources cited by Malloy in his debate with Myers that I linked to in my OP, the difference in academic performance still exists when you compare Caucasians whose families are in the lowest income bracket, and African-Americans whose families earn more than $70,000 per year. Do you think there’s any measure of SES by which a family which earns less than $10,000 per year has a higher SES than one with an annual income level of $70,000? Originally Posted by plindboe I didn't have any specific in mind, but I'm sure if one had the time one could go on a statistics hunt for environmental factors and come up with several suggestions. If one finds higher numbers of blacks compared to whites who drink, smoke, take drugs etc. during pregnancy, or more often give birth to babies with lower birth weights, or contain a higher amount of various harmful elements due to poor nutrition (I read somewhere that black people have greater amounts of lead in their bodies than white people, which can have negative consequences for future intelligence). I think several of these factors I mentioned, and probably several I haven't, have been shown to have harmful effects on development and intelligence, and I can't imagine it would be insurmountable to find some of these factors at higher frequencies in some groups compared to others.
As with what I said in response to Tomk80, whatever environmental factor you come up with to explain this, it’ll need to be one that has a stronger negative effect on African-American families with an annual income of $70,000 than on Caucasian families with one of $10,000. If you’re going to attribute this to drug use or poor nutrition, it seems a rather strange assertion to make that even when you compare the poorest white people to the wealthiest black people, black people still have poorer nutrition and/or use drugs more frequently. Originally Posted by plindboe Yep. I'd like to see more of this evidence. Is it that link in #22? If it is, it doesn't appear to work for the moment.
Yeah, that’s what I was referring to, and the link seems to work for me. Can you try it again? The website might have just been down temporarily.
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7th November 2008, 05:29 AM
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Reps: 15,461,686,232,085,960 (power: 15,461,686,232,100) | | Speak o' the devil, guess what I saw in an article that landed in my inbox today. Later, [Bruce] Lahn commented that some scientists "are almost like creationists" in their unwillingness to acknowledge that the brain is not exempt from selection pressures.
Heh. http://www.sciencemag.org/cgi/conten...322/5903/839a? [requires subscription]
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