Creation & EvolutionForum for the discussion of this important topic. This forum is open to non-believers. There is a Christians-only forum in the Christians-only section too.
But it appears as if you're trying to get a rise out of members here, who you think look to Meyers as some kind of an 'authority' figure, and that if you show him to be wrong about something, then that should somehow crush his 'worshipers'. It's as if you're trying to push buttons to get reactions, yet you premise this whole thing with complaining about the reactions of members here which caused you to leave for a couple months.
I tried to explain this before. I’m not sure how it is that I’m being unclear about it.
The attitude that I had a problem with here a few months ago was never a constant thing. It would show up in some threads but not others, and sometimes several weeks would go by without it showing up at all. So just observing the forum, especially when it’s this inactive, is not going to be enough to tell me whether this is going to continue being a problem. If I were to just start posting again normally because things look better, I might very well discover after a month or so that this attitude hadn’t really improved at all, and I just hadn’t been able to see it from reading threads while lurking.
Think of this thread like any other scientific experiment. If a scientist thinks he might have just made a useful new discovery, he’s probably going to hope that his new hypothesis is correct. But if he’s following the scientific method, he’s still going to search for ways to test that hypothesis, with experiments that would have the potential to falsify the hypothesis if it’s incorrect. He doesn’t want the hypothesis to be wrong; he just wants to know whether it is or not.
My hypothesis is that things have improved here during the time since I left. I’m hoping that hypothesis is correct, but as with any other hypothesis, I need to test whether it is or not. So in order to test the hypothesis, I’ve brought up a topic that would have descended into a mudslinging match if this forum were still the way it was a few months ago, but that would not be a problem if this forum is now back to the way it was in 2004 and 2005. By seeing how this thread turns out, I’ll be able to learn whether or not my hypothesis is correct. Does this make sense now?
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So in order to test the hypothesis, I’ve brought up a topic that would have descended into a mudslinging match if this forum were still the way it was a few months ago, but that would not be a problem if this forum is now back to the way it was in 2004 and 2005.
I wasn't here so long ago, so of course I can't know how the members back then would've reacted, but I'm not entirely sure very decent people (who'd otherwise be happy to have a civil debate about the subject) can't be pushed into mudslinging if you openly and intentionally provoke them. Or right the opposite (the 'I won't let you provoke me' response).
Isn't the number one rule of thumb of an experiment in human psychology never to tell the subjects what you're trying to find out about them (and neverneverNEVER! tell what you expect)?
By seeing how this thread turns out, I’ll be able to learn whether or not my hypothesis is correct. Does this make sense now?
I see what you're trying to do but I'm more inclined to think you'll learn nothing useful. It's just a poor experiment IMHO. Whatever the results are, you won't be able to tell if it's because responders are naturally like that or because you manipulated them into a reaction.
(Not that there's much interest in the thread so far...)
__________________ "There is much we do not understand about the history of life, and the same will be true of our grandchildren. But, then, if we knew all there was to know, scientific interest would cease. Textbooks may portray science as a codification of facts, but it is really a disciplined way of asking about the unknown." - A.H. Knoll, Life on a Young Planet
"Come on, put your bloody thinking caps on!" - Dr Tony Prave, geology lecture
I have never visited PZ Myers' blog, so I don't really have much opinion about the man or his arguments. I do know however that it's very human to act irrationally from time to time, especially during heated arguments. It would be a very black and white way of looking at things by dividing everyone in the world into the two groups; "rationals" or "irrationals", and decide to lump anyone, who've at times in their life done something irrational or commented thoughtlessly, into the latter group. After enough research, you'd end up with 6,7 billion people in the "irrational" group and 0 in the "rational".
This isn't religion after all, as TheBear said, so flawless authorities are well known not to exist. I've read some pretty embarrassing remarks Darwin have said, and it wouldn't surprise me at all if I were to discover examples of him being closeminded regarding some of the early criticisms of "Origin", despite being one of the greatest scientific minds in history, none of which takes away from his actual achievements (also, had the internet existed in Darwin's time, I'm sure we'd have even greater quantities of silly remarks to facepalm over). To judge Myers as a scientist I think his scientific achievements are much more relevant and interesting than a heated internet exchange where he perhaps handled himself poorly and in a closeminded manner.
Peter
Last edited by plindboe; 3rd November 2008 at 09:24 AM.
I'd like to make a number of points at this point, but haven't got much time so it's going to be short.
1. What Naroia said.
2. Again, while PZ might react strongly on this issue, I don't think you have really shown he is impervious to facts. My main problem here is that I think the examples you gave mainly show Malloy making a number of errors, one of the most egregious being the "ecological fallacy". It makes me, as an epidemiologist, cringe.
3. Again I take the example I discussed earlier with Jason Malloy. His arguments in this thread miss the mark on many levels. First, it confuses the issues raised by PZ of genuine discrimination with academic theories on differences in IQ. In his first post on that thread, his first argument on within family differences makes the ecological fallacy of confusing data on individuals with group data. I haven't been able to read the article of his last argument yet, but he seems to make the same error there.
Also, Malloy confuses racial differences with differences due to environmental factors. In other words, the argument he seems to make is that the differences between blacks and caucasians are due to some inherent racial difference, when this need not be the case. This is emphasized by the APA's finding that differences in group IQ between African Americans and caucasians seem to be closing as more African Americans find their way into jobs of a higher social status: "It is possible, however, that this differential is diminishing. In the most recent re-standardization of the Stanford-Binet test, the Black/White differential was 13 points for younger children and 10 points for older children (Thorndike et al, 1986). In several other studies of children since 1980, the Black mean has consistently been over 90 and the differential has been in single digits (Vincent, 1991). Larger and more definitive studies are needed before this trend can be regarded as established." (see here. This might mean that IQ differences between black and Caucasians are indeed social constructs and not inherent differences.
So in summary, PZ may be strongly opposed to attributing IQ differences to race or gender and have a vested interest in his opposition to it, possibly from my reading a fairness issue. However, I do not think Malloy has argued his point so clearly to claim that PZ is "fundamentalist" about these topics.
As a last point, one of the problems I think is that Malloy and Myers are talking past each other on this issue. From what I can see, Myers real point is that the difference in IQ's is not an inherent difference between blacks and whites, but rather a cultural one. Quite frankly, I cannot see Malloy's real point, but I think that in attacking SES, he isn't really attacking Myers' point but only part of it. I also think that if Malloys' point is that the differences are inherent due to race rather than cultural issues, the data do not support his viewpoints.
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Tom
'What luck for rulers, that men do not think.'
-Ascribed to Adolf Hitler-
`Contrariwise,' continued Tweedledee, `if it was so, it might be; and if it were so, it would be; but as it isn't, it ain't. That's logic.'
-Through the Looking Glas by Lewis Caroll-
Statistics are like a bikini. What they reveal is suggestive, but what they conceal is vital.
--Aaron Levenstein
Last edited by Tomk80; 3rd November 2008 at 10:05 AM.
One more thing, and then I'm going to shut up again. In IQ differences between sexes the data is not nearly as easily interpretable as often stated. For example, the differences in spatial tasks and math tasks are favorable to men, but the differences in language tasks are favorable to women. But we don't see this reflected in differences in job status. Also, the argument that "we see more men in prison" is not necessarily an IQ-issue, but may be a hormone (yay testosterone!) issue. Also, cultural expectations have been shown to explain IQ differences between sexes, so "unconscious" discrimination in the form of culturally assigned gender roles may definitely play a role in job achievement.
In other words, while the differences between men and women in job achievement may be due to characteristics inherent in gender, IQ may not be the deciding factor. I would also reïterate that there are genuine indications of discrimination on the work floor towards women, as I stated in an earlier post.
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Tom
'What luck for rulers, that men do not think.'
-Ascribed to Adolf Hitler-
`Contrariwise,' continued Tweedledee, `if it was so, it might be; and if it were so, it would be; but as it isn't, it ain't. That's logic.'
-Through the Looking Glas by Lewis Caroll-
Statistics are like a bikini. What they reveal is suggestive, but what they conceal is vital.
I see what you're trying to do but I'm more inclined to think you'll learn nothing useful. It's just a poor experiment IMHO. Whatever the results are, you won't be able to tell if it's because responders are naturally like that or because you manipulated them into a reaction.
I also have another idea in mind for how to test the state of this forum that I might eventually use, without telling anyone what I’m trying to do, but it’s something that probably wouldn’t be a very effective test when the forum is this inactive. I still might try it eventually, though. Nitron knows what I have in mind, so if you’re curious you can ask him about it, although since you’re right about these tests tend to work better when the people being tested don’t know that they are, if you ask him I’d appreciate you not telling anyone else about it.
Originally Posted by Tomk80
Also, Malloy confuses racial differences with differences due to environmental factors. In other words, the argument he seems to make is that the differences between blacks and caucasians are due to some inherent racial difference, when this need not be the case. This is emphasized by the APA's finding that differences in group IQ between African Americans and caucasians seem to be closing as more African Americans find their way into jobs of a higher social status: "It is possible, however, that this differential is diminishing. In the most recent re-standardization of the Stanford-Binet test, the Black/White differential was 13 points for younger children and 10 points for older children (Thorndike et al, 1986). In several other studies of children since 1980, the Black mean has consistently been over 90 and the differential has been in single digits (Vincent, 1991). Larger and more definitive studies are needed before this trend can be regarded as established." (see here. This might mean that IQ differences between black and Caucasians are indeed social constructs and not inherent differences.
I don’t see how you’re getting that Malloy is arguing that any specific factor is the cause of the IQ difference. He’s argued elsewhere for what he thinks is causing it, but as I quoted from him in my OP, in that thread he was very clear that he was not trying to argue here that it has a genetic cause. He was disputing one very specific claim that Myers made: that low SES was the cause of low IQ.
I think you might be making a similar mistake here to the one Myers made, in assuming that it has to be either SES or something inherent, so evidence against something inherent is the same as evidence that it’s caused by SES. This is a false dichotomy.
Or am I missing something here? Why do you say that Malloy is claiming the difference in IQ is due to something innate, when he specifically stated in that thread “I did not make the claim that any intelligence difference was genetic here”?
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I don’t see how you’re getting that Malloy is arguing that any specific factor is the cause of the IQ difference. He’s argued elsewhere for what he thinks is causing it, but as I quoted from him in my OP, in that thread he was very clear that he was not trying to argue here that it has a genetic cause. He was disputing one very specific claim that Myers made: that low SES was the cause of low IQ.
Also in that thread, Myers makes it sufficiently clear that he doesn't think it is just SES. From Myers: "I disagree. Poverty and a history of oppression came first, and we have an ongoing cycle of social factors that keep African-Americans down. And that's an opinion the sources you cited seem to share." So nowhere does Meyers make the claim that it is only SES.
I think you might be making a similar mistake here to the one Myers made, in assuming that it has to be either SES or something inherent, so evidence against something inherent is the same as evidence that it’s caused by SES. This is a false dichotomy.
But nowhere does Meyers state that it is either/or. Just as I nowhere stated such. What I see is that Malloy states this is Meyers position, but Meyers himself never states that SES alone is a causative factor. He specifically refers to a history of oppression as another, for example.
Or am I missing something here? Why do you say that Malloy is claiming the difference in IQ is due to something innate, when he specifically stated in that thread “I did not make the claim that any intelligence difference was genetic here”?
Then why does he state that the claim "...1000 kids of any race could be raised to be successful college kids." is false in conjunction with differences between groups. Meyers was in this part referring to a "blank slate" state where different groups of kids, given the exact same circumstances, will achieve the same thing. I can imagine Malloy stating that a certain percentage of kids will not make college level for whichever reason. There is a natural variability within groups on this level. However, he states "within and between groups" in this context, implying that there is some inherent, non-cultural difference between 1000 black kids and 1000 white kids that would make the percentage of white kids to achieve college higher than that of black kids.
That or he argues his point very poorly.
__________________
Tom
'What luck for rulers, that men do not think.'
-Ascribed to Adolf Hitler-
`Contrariwise,' continued Tweedledee, `if it was so, it might be; and if it were so, it would be; but as it isn't, it ain't. That's logic.'
-Through the Looking Glas by Lewis Caroll-
Statistics are like a bikini. What they reveal is suggestive, but what they conceal is vital.
Also in that thread, Myers makes it sufficiently clear that he doesn't think it is just SES. From Myers: "I disagree. Poverty and a history of oppression came first, and we have an ongoing cycle of social factors that keep African-Americans down. And that's an opinion the sources you cited seem to share." So nowhere does Meyers make the claim that it is only SES.
He claimed that in the second comment of the thread. Anon said in the first comment there, “Low intelligence is a major cause of poverty; that's the way the arrow of causation points.” The APA analysis I linked to in my OP agrees with that conclusion, but Myers replied to say “You've got your arrow reversed.” That is to say, that the arrow of causation points from poverty to low IQ, not the other way around.
That’s what Malloy was disputing. Myers showed that the sources Malloy was using didn’t think there was enough evidence to conclude it was genetic, but they didn’t support Myers’ claim about the arrow of causation pointing form poverty to low IQ.
When you look at his claim about it being caused by a history of oppression, it also isn’t really different from the SES claim. Slavery ended after the civil war, and institutionalized discrimination ended in the 1960s, so the African-Americans who are currently applying to college were born around 25 years after the end of this oppression. For African-American who were born in 1990 and are now taking SAT tests, what social factors would there currently be to negatively affect their test scores, that result from their ancestors having been oppressed before these people were born? Well… there’s the fact that African-Americans still tend to not have as much money as Caucasians, but that’s the SES claim again, which Malloy’s evidence shows to be incorrect. What other ways could a history of oppression possibly be affecting people who weren’t born until 25 years after the oppression stopped?
Originally Posted by Tomk80
Then why does he state that the claim "...1000 kids of any race could be raised to be successful college kids." is false in conjunction with differences between groups. Meyers was in this part referring to a "blank slate" state where different groups of kids, given the exact same circumstances, will achieve the same thing. I can imagine Malloy stating that a certain percentage of kids will not make college level for whichever reason. There is a natural variability within groups on this level. However, he states "within and between groups" in this context, implying that there is some inherent, non-cultural difference between 1000 black kids and 1000 white kids that would make the percentage of white kids to achieve college higher than that of black kids.
OK, I see what’s confusing you. That was an entirely separate thread, which Malloy had a problem with unrelated to the problem I was just describing with PZ’s SES claim. In the SES thread, he was trying to stay off the topic of whether there are environmental factors other than SES that cause the difference in IQ, but that’s what his problem is with the claim you just quoted.
Part of the problem with this is just what you stated: between individuals, variation in adult IQ is around 80% genetic, and the APA analysis states that academic success depends very heavily on IQ. So it’s very unlikely that 1000 people of any group, chosen at random, will all have what it takes to become successful college students. But Malloy is also referring to something else here, which is that whatever is causing the IQ difference, controlling for environment doesn’t seem able to make it go away.
His article here talks about this. The most relevant part of his post is the part about the Minnesota transracial adoption study, which studied how it affected black and white childrens’ IQ to be adopted and raised by a family of the opposite race. This removes cultural influence as well as economic factors, so it’s about as close as any experiment can come to removing environmental influence entirely. Here’s the data from it:
IQ at Age 7:
W-W 111.5
W-B 105.4
B-B 91.4
IQ at Age 17:
W-W 101.5
W-B 93.2
B-B 83.7
W-W = Adopted children with two white biological parents.
W-B = Adopted children with one black and one white biological parent.
B-B = Adopted children with two black biological parents.
IQ tests given to young children tend to have inflated scores, so the decrease in IQ between age 7 and 17 isn’t significant for what this is measuring. The relevant thing is that when black children are raised in a white cultural and economic environment, this doesn’t significantly increase their IQ, nor does being raised by a black families lower the IQ of white children. Perhaps more significantly, mixed-race children have an IQ around halfway between the two, even when they are raised under the mistaken information that they have two black biological parents.
Between the 100% African children and the mixed-race children, a difference in IQ of around 10 points exists even though both are raised in the same cultural and economic environment, both have the same cultural identity as African-Americans, and in some cases they are not even aware that they have different biological parentage. What possible environmental factor could Myers think can be equaized in order to make this IQ difference go away?
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Last edited by Aggie; 3rd November 2008 at 04:29 PM.
He claimed that in the second comment of the thread. Anon said in the first comment there, “Low intelligence is a major cause of poverty; that's the way the arrow of causation points.” The APA analysis I linked to in my OP agrees with that conclusion, but Myers replied to say “You've got your arrow reversed.” That is to say, that the arrow of causation points from poverty to low IQ, not the other way around.
That’s what Malloy was disputing. Myers showed that the sources Malloy was using didn’t think there was enough evidence to conclude it was genetic, but they didn’t support Myers’ claim about the arrow of causation pointing form poverty to low IQ.
But the sources Malloy cited don't negate the direction from IQ to poverty. They say that some ethnic groups on average have lower IQs than others and that this difference is not completely explained by poverty, but not that poverty does not cause low IQ. At best they tell us that this is not the entire story. And Meyers already says that.
I don't know from which year your source is because I cannot open it, but the latest reviews I can actually find on this topic do state that poverty induces low IQ. Granted, they are from 1998, so if yours is more recent and actually negates the causative arrow from poverty to IQ, I would like to read it and I'll try to get it. But there is evidence that the arrow also goes from poverty to low IQ. This also makes sense. Poverty causes children to be exposed to other risk factors for low IQ, like poor schooling (better schooling is related to higher IQ) and environmental risk factors like lead exposure (exposure to lead at young ages negatively influences cognitive abilities).
The problem here is that these things go around in circles. Schooling increases IQ. But someone with higher IQ is also more likely to do better at school. With many of these issues you end up in a loop.
When you look at his claim about it being caused by a history of oppression, it also isn’t really different from the SES claim. Slavery ended after the civil war, and institutionalized discrimination ended in the 1960s, so the African-Americans who are currently applying to college were born around 25 years after the end of this oppression. For African-American who were born in 1990 and are now taking SAT tests, what social factors would there currently be to negatively affect their test scores, that result from their ancestors having been oppressed before these people were born? Well… there’s the fact that African-Americans still tend to not have as much money as Caucasians, but that’s the SES claim again, which Malloy’s evidence shows to be incorrect. What other ways could a history of oppression possibly be affecting people who weren’t born until 25 years after the oppression stopped?
Because while the oppression stopped, the effects of that oppression take a longer time to go away. It's not only schooling and and money that effect this, but the complete set of culture, stimulation at home, fitting in, expectations directed at the child. These effects take time to undo, they won't go away within a few years and will probably linger longer than a few generations. And indeed, as I already showed, there is evidence that now, about one or one and a half generations later, IQ of African Americans begins to rise in comparison to Caucasian children (that in that APA document you linked to).
OK, I see what’s confusing you. That was an entirely separate thread, which Malloy had a problem with unrelated to the problem I was just describing with PZ’s SES claim. In the SES thread, he was trying to stay off the topic of whether there are environmental factors other than SES that cause the difference in IQ, but that’s what his problem is with the claim you just quoted.
Part of the problem with this is just what you stated: between individuals, variation in adult IQ is around 80% genetic, and the APA analysis states that academic success depends very heavily on IQ. So it’s very unlikely that 1000 people of any group, chosen at random, will all have what it takes to become successful college students. But Malloy is also referring to something else here, which is that whatever is causing the IQ difference, controlling for environment doesn’t seem able to make it go away.
His article here talks about this. The most relevant part of his post is the part about the Minnesota transracial adoption study, which studied how it affected black and white childrens’ IQ to be adopted and raised by a family of the opposite race. This removes cultural influence as well as economic factors, so it’s about as close as any experiment can come to removing environmental influence entirely. Here’s the data from it:
IQ at Age 7:
W-W 111.5
W-B 105.4
B-B 91.4
IQ at Age 17:
W-W 101.5
W-B 93.2
B-B 83.7
W-W = Adopted children with two white biological parents.
W-B = Adopted children with one black and one white biological parent.
B-B = Adopted children with two black biological parents.
IQ tests given to young children tend to have inflated scores, so the decrease in IQ between age 7 and 17 isn’t significant for what this is measuring. The relevant thing is that when black children are raised in a white cultural and economic environment, this doesn’t significantly increase their IQ, nor does being raised by a black families lower the IQ of white children. Perhaps more significantly, mixed-race children have an IQ around halfway between the two, even when they are raised under the mistaken information that they have two black biological parents.
Between the 100% African children and the mixed-race children, a difference in IQ of around 10 points exists even though both are raised in the same cultural and economic environment, both have the same cultural identity as African-Americans, and in some cases they are not even aware that they have different biological parentage. What possible environmental factor could Myers think can be equaized in order to make this IQ difference go away?
I would have a number of possible environmental factors, like different prenatal exposures or expectations of black and white kids in classes based on color (Caste-like minority effect), to just guess on a few possibilities. I would need to read the full article on this to be able to say more. Do you have it? Otherwise I'll need to get it through my library.
__________________
Tom
'What luck for rulers, that men do not think.'
-Ascribed to Adolf Hitler-
`Contrariwise,' continued Tweedledee, `if it was so, it might be; and if it were so, it would be; but as it isn't, it ain't. That's logic.'
-Through the Looking Glas by Lewis Caroll-
Statistics are like a bikini. What they reveal is suggestive, but what they conceal is vital.
But the sources Malloy cited don't negate the direction from IQ to poverty. They say that some ethnic groups on average have lower IQs than others and that this difference is not completely explained by poverty, but not that poverty does not cause low IQ. At best they tell us that this is not the entire story. And Meyers already says that.
How are you getting that his sources don’t argue against poverty causing the difference in IQ between races? One of the articles he cited states:
"It is true that the gap shrinks only a little when black and white children attend the same schools. It is also true that the gap shrinks only a little when black and white families have the same amount of schooling, the same income, and the same wealth."
So when you remove poverty as a possible cause, the IQ gap shrinks “a little”. I don’t think anyone would argue with the idea that poverty makes some amount of difference in this area, but to say that poverty “causes” it is an overstatement.
Originally Posted by Tomk80
Because while the oppression stopped, the effects of that oppression take a longer time to go away. It's not only schooling and and money that effect this, but the complete set of culture, stimulation at home, fitting in, expectations directed at the child. These effects take time to undo, they won't go away within a few years and will probably linger longer than a few generations. And indeed, as I already showed, there is evidence that now, about one or one and a half generations later, IQ of African Americans begins to rise in comparison to Caucasian children (that in that APA document you linked to).
As I stated before, SES and education do a small some amount of difference. So it’s not a surprise that as these conditions improve for African-Americans, the IQ gap would narrow somewhat. But Malloy’s data suggests that there’s a limit to how much this gap can shrink, since even when you equalize these factors the IQ difference doesn’t go away.
As for whether they’re really been equalized in the adoption studies, I’ll address this in response to the next part of your post:
Originally Posted by Tomk80
I would have a number of possible environmental factors, like different prenatal exposures or expectations of black and white kids in classes based on color (Caste-like minority effect), to just guess on a few possibilities. I would need to read the full article on this to be able to say more. Do you have it? Otherwise I'll need to get it through my library.
Neither of the two explanations you’ve given adequately explain the data, though. For mixed-race children with a white mother and a black father, prenatal exposure shouldn’t be any different than for a child with two white parents. And why would cultural expectations of a child with one black and white parent be any different than for one with two black parents, especially when the child themselves thinks that they have two black parents? The way we culturally define these groups is very simple: someone like Barack Obama we simply think of as being “black”, even though he’s only 50% African.
One other relevant piece of evidence that Malloy cited in his Watson article is this study, which attempted to detect effects of factors such as discrimination in the mental development of various ethnic groups. As you can see from the abstract (or from the paper itself, if you can get access to it), there wasn’t any sign of discrimination having an effect.
I’m afraid I don’t have these papers myself. But one paper I can give you right now is this, which is an overview of the data on this topic published in 2005 in the peer-reviewed journal Psychology, Public Policy and Law. A large portion of the data reviewed there is considerably older than 2005, since the article is intended as an overview of the research that’s been done in this area during the time since Arthur Jensen first brought the IQ difference to public attention in the 1970s, but most of the people I’ve discussed this topic with seem to think of this paper as the best summary available of the data that exists about it.
If you look up the Minnesota study, it’s also worth looking at the subsequent analyses that have been conducted of the data from it, since several researchers disagreed with the conclusion drawn by its original authors. This is described in the Wikipedia article about the study.
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