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Bibliology & Hermeneutics The study of the Bible and Scriptures, and its interpretation and translation.

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  #1  
Old 19th August 2008, 09:11 PM
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Understanding OT Law: Abrogation?

Hi Everyone,

In a discussion on non-Christian religions the Muslim principal of "abrogation" was brought up. The basic theory is that a later revelation of God could "abrogate" or replace a prior revelation. For examle, God could at one time permit one thing and then later forbid it, or vice-versa?

My question is this: do you see this as being a Biblical concept as well? Do you think that certain laws have been "abrogated"--for example, the Sabbath, clean/unclean foods, wearing of certain clothing forbidden, etc?

Daniel
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  #2  
Old 19th August 2008, 09:20 PM
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I am not sure if we could compare the Quranic understanding of "abrogation" to the Law of God that was revealed to Moses, but where we also say that Christ had fulfilled. Islamic sense of abrogation clearly appears that the deity Allah has a better solution to the issue now, or has changed his mind, but in our faith it is completing, such as Christ's words saying, "you have been told... But now I tell you this" with authority, it is not in the same sense of islamic abrogation, canceling commandments per se.
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Old 19th August 2008, 09:28 PM
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Originally Posted by Bushmaster78FS View Post
I am not sure if we could compare the Quranic understanding of "abrogation" to the Law of God that was revealed to Moses, but where we also say that Christ had fulfilled. Islamic sense of abrogation clearly appears that the deity Allah has a better solution to the issue now, or has changed his mind, but in our faith it is completing, such as Christ's words saying, "you have been told... But now I tell you this" with authority, it is not in the same sense of islamic abrogation, canceling commandments per se.
Thanks for your post, Bushmaster

Effectively, what is the practical difference between "completing" vs. "cancelling"? It seems to me that if an old law (in whole or in part--some might seperate the 10 commandments from the rest of the law) has been "completed", then the practical meaning is that what was forbidden once is now allowed (and sometimes vice-versa, such as divorce)--which doesn't seem terribly different in effect (though perhaps in theological meaning) from Islamic "abrogation".

Daniel
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Old 21st August 2008, 01:03 PM
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I would like to agree with Luzeiro, that islamic teaching of abrogation is not the issue with OT laws and Christ's interpretation of them. Practically, it appears to be in the same category as you suggest, (of course not theologically) but when Christ says "you have been told this, now I am telling you this" usually there is a deeper concern while this concern is not the point of islamic abrogation. Islamic abrogation appears more like an edit of the text, while Christ's instructions are signs of authority.
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Old 21st August 2008, 04:58 PM
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Originally Posted by Bushmaster78FS View Post
I would like to agree with Luzeiro, that islamic teaching of abrogation is not the issue with OT laws and Christ's interpretation of them. Practically, it appears to be in the same category as you suggest, (of course not theologically) but when Christ says "you have been told this, now I am telling you this" usually there is a deeper concern while this concern is not the point of islamic abrogation. Islamic abrogation appears more like an edit of the text, while Christ's instructions are signs of authority.
Thanks for your post, Bushmaster

I'm not sure if I would just say that Christ "interpreted" the law. I think actual change is indicated in at least some of what he said (or later, what the inspired NT writers like Paul wrote). Indeed, the writer of Hebrews wrote about change in the law (Heb 7:12).

Some changes are obvious--no circumcision required, for example. But it's a real change, not just a clarification or interpretation. Now, how this relates to Jesus' statement about "not a jot or tittle" changing "until all is fulfilled" is an interesting question. Some will argue that refers only to the Ten Commandments (though there's some disagreement on the Sabbath--did it change from Saturday to Sunday?). Others say that it is the whole law, but the "all fulfilled" was when Jesus said "it is finished [completed]" on the cross. The dilema for this position is that it makes Matthew recording a statement of no relevance to the Christian today, nor at the time of his writing.

Any way, your continued thoughts (and other posters) would be appreciated.

Peace,

Daniel
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Old 21st August 2008, 07:49 PM
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Originally Posted by DanielRB View Post
Thanks for your post, Bushmaster

I'm not sure if I would just say that Christ "interpreted" the law.
Of course we are not speaking of a personal "interpretation" in this case. He gave us the truth of God's Law, being God Himself, only correct application would come from Him.

Some changes are obvious--no circumcision required, for example. But it's a real change, not just a clarification or interpretation.
Yes, a decision arrived at the council of Jerusalem, which I believe was presided by the Holy Spirit just as the other 7 ecumenical councils. However here, there is a decision based on Christ's teachings on the status of Gentiles. Can we say it was abrogation in the sense of Islamic application?


Now, how this relates to Jesus' statement about "not a jot or tittle" changing "until all is fulfilled" is an interesting question. Some will argue that refers only to the Ten Commandments (though there's some disagreement on the Sabbath--did it change from Saturday to Sunday?). Others say that it is the whole law, but the "all fulfilled" was when Jesus said "it is finished [completed]" on the cross. The dilema for this position is that it makes Matthew recording a statement of no relevance to the Christian today, nor at the time of his writing.
I don't think we should be necessarily in a dilemma for this. I would like to invite you to our forum at The Ancient Way and we can expound on it.

Any way, your continued thoughts (and other posters) would be appreciated.
No problem Daniel...
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Old 22nd August 2008, 01:32 AM
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Thanks again for the post, Bushmaster

Originally Posted by Bushmaster78FS View Post
Of course we are not speaking of a personal "interpretation" in this case. He gave us the truth of God's Law, being God Himself, only correct application would come from Him.

Yes, a decision arrived at the council of Jerusalem, which I believe was presided by the Holy Spirit just as the other 7 ecumenical councils. However here, there is a decision based on Christ's teachings on the status of Gentiles. Can we say it was abrogation in the sense of Islamic application?


I don't think we should be necessarily in a dilemma for this. I would like to invite you to our forum at The Ancient Way and we can expound on it.

No problem Daniel...
Thanks for the invitation...but can't we just continue the discussion on this thread?

If so, how do you see resolution of the apparent dilemma of "jot and tittle" and changes such as no longer requiring circumcision? Although I appreciate the Orthodox position, I'd also like to hear from others.

Peace,

Daniel
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Old 22nd August 2008, 10:21 AM
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Originally Posted by DanielRB View Post
Thanks again for the post, Bushmaster


Thanks for the invitation...but can't we just continue the discussion on this thread?

If so, how do you see resolution of the apparent dilemma of "jot and tittle" and changes such as no longer requiring circumcision? Although I appreciate the Orthodox position, I'd also like to hear from others.

Peace,

Daniel
Of course we can stay here but this area is not my best, also I would not want to get into a misleading position. We can have this thread stay here for others' responses. Drop by anytime for the Orthodox position in depth.
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Old 22nd August 2008, 11:39 AM
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If the Quran advocated abrogation of previous scripture, why is there a pork taboo in Islam?

I suspect that Islam picked up the abrogation argument from the Christian world, who applied it to the OT. Marcion's canon did not include the OT (and several books of the NT also BTW.)
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Old 22nd August 2008, 11:57 AM
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We should also consider the socio-political events surrounding Muhammad, and revelations being directly related to those events. While he was promoting his new religion, he offered peace, then when he faced opposition from Jews and Christians of the era, revelations did a 180-turn.
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